Archive for March 2020

TS EAMCET 2020 Application Last Date Extended

The Telangana State Engineering, Agriculture & Medical (Pharmacy, Veterinary etc.,) Common Entrance Test-2020 (TS EAMCET-2020) is being conducted by Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad on behalf of Telangana State Council of Higher Education (TSCHE). This examination is the prerequisite for admission into various professional courses offered in University/ Private Colleges in the state of Telangana for the academic year 2020-2021.

JNTU Hyderabad has extended TS EAMCET 2020 application form submission dates due to COVID-19 outbreak. Candidates can fill and submit their TS EAMCET application form until April 7. Read the details below.

JNTU Hyderabad has extended TS EAMCET 2020 application form submission dates. The last date to fill and submit the TS EAMCET 2020 application form without paying a late fee is April 7. Aspiring candidates who want to submit TS EAMCET 2020 application by paying late fees can also do so within the given timeline. The TS EAMCET correction window will open on April 8 for candidates who want to correct mistakes in filled in TS EAMCET application form.

Postponement of Joint Entrance Examination (Main) April-2020

In pursuance of MHRD letter no. Secy (HE)/ MHRD)/ 2020 dated 18th March 2020, the competent authority of the National Testing Agency has postponed the ensuing JEE (Main) April 2020 examinations scheduled on the 5th, 7th, 9th and 11th April 2020. The New dates of JEE (Main) examinations will be announced on the 31st March 2020. Accordingly, the admit cards for the examinations which were to be issued on 20th March 2020 will now be issued after 31st March 2020 only. The candidates and their parents are advised to keep visiting jeemain.nta.nic.in and www.nta.ac.in for latest updates. They are also being informed individually through their registered mobile number/ email-id. The candidates can also contact at 0120-6895200 for any further clarification.

AP LAW COMMON ENTRANCE TEST – 2020 APLAWCET / APPGLCET

In terms of G.O.Ms. No.26, Higher Education (H.E.II) Department, dated 24-3-2004 and G.O.Ms. No.52, Higher Education (UE-II) Department, dated 20-6-2007 and their amendments, issued by the Government of Andhra Pradesh, the competent authority, Chairman, APSCHE has entrusted the job of conducting the entrance tests APLAWCET and APPGLCET for admission into first year of 5-year LL.B / 3-year LL.B and first year of Postgraduate Law courses LL.M / M.L respectively to Sri Krishna devaraya University, Ananthapuramu, Andhra Pradesh.

  • 3 Year/ 5 Year LL.B Courses (APLAWCET) Registration fee Rs.750/-
  • Post graduate Law courses LL.M (APPGLCET) Registration fee Rs.850/-
ActivityDate & Time
Notification of AP LAWCET & PGLCET – 202010-03-2020
Commencement of Submission of Online application forms11-03-2020
Last date for submission of online applications without late fee10-04-2020
Last date for submission of online applications with late fee of Rs. 500/-19-04-2020
Last Date for Submission of Application with a Late fee of Rs.1000/-28-04-2020
Last Date for Submission of Application with a Late fee of Rs.2000/-30-04-2020
Correction of online application data already submitted by the candidate20-04-2020 to 21-04-2020
Downloading of Hall-tickets from the website http://www.sche.ap.gov.in/lawcet03-05-2020 onwards
Date of AP LAWCET & PGLCET – 2020 Examination08-05-2020
Time of Examination11-00 am to 12-30 pm

ELIGIBILITY FOR AP LAWCET–2020 & AP PGLCET-2020

3 year LL.B Course:

The Candidates for 3 year LL.B. should have passed any Graduate Degree (10+2+3 pattern) of a recognized University with 45% of aggregate marks or any other examination recognized as equivalent by the Universities concerned. If any candidate secured less than 45% in graduation he should have passed any additional graduate or postgraduate degree with 45% aggregate marks

5 Year LL.B. Course:

The Candidates for 5 year LL.B. should have passed two year Intermediate Examination (10+2 pattern) with 45% of aggregate marks or any other examination recognized as equivalent by the University concerned or the Board of Intermediate Education, A.P.

Note: There is a relaxation of 5% of marks in the above qualifying examinations for 3 year / 5 year Law course in favour of the candidates belonging to SC / ST and relaxation of 3% of marks for candidates belonging to other backward classes.

2 Year LL.M. Course:

Candidates holding LL.B./B.L. degree on the date of application and candidates who have appeared/appearing for LL.B./B.L. Final year examination are also eligible. A candidate appearing for LLB/BL degree examinations may take the AP PGLCET in anticipation of results. However the candidate shall have passed the qualifying examination with 50% marks in aggregate (for OC) and 45% marks in aggregate (for BC/SC/ST) at the time of counseling.

ELIGIBILITY3-YEAR LLB5-YEAR LLBLLM
For OC CandidatesDegree/PG with minimum 45% marksIntermediate with minimum 45% marksB.L./LLB degree with minimum 50% marks
For BC CandidatesDegree/PG with minimum 42% marksIntermediate with minimum 42% marksB.L./LLB degree with minimum 45% marks
For SC/ST CandidatesDegree/PG with minimum 40% marksIntermediate with minimum 40% MarksB.L./LLB degree with minimum 45% marks

Note:

1) Mere appearance in AP LAWCET / AP PGLCET will not give any right of admission. The candidate shall satisfy all the eligibility criteria and should satisfy rules governing admission as are applicable at the time of admission.

2.) The applicants who have obtained 10+2 or graduation / post graduation through single sitting system directly without having any basic qualification for prosecuting such studies are not eligible for admission into the law courses.

3) Age on admission into law courses is subject to the rule position in vogue at the time of admission.

4) Nationality and Domicile: The candidate should be an Indian National and should satisfy Local / non-local s t a t u s requirement as laid down in the Andhra Pradesh Educational Institutions (Regulation of Admissions) Order, 1974 and the amendments made thereto from time to time.

Centers of Entrance Test (APLAWCET/APPGLCET):

S.NoCenter
1Anantapuramu
2Chittoor
3Tirupathi
4Kadapa
5Kurnool
6Nandyal
7Nellore
8Ongole
9Guntur
10Vijayawada
11Bhimavaram
12Kakinada
13Rajamahendravaram
14Visakhapatnam
15Vizianagaram
16Srikakulam

However, Convener reserves the right to allot candidates to any other center(s) in unavoidable circumstances.

Medium of Entrance Test: The APLAWCET will be conducted in English and Telugu versions and APPGLCET question paper will be in English only.

Test Paper Information:

AP LAWCET:

The Test is designed to evaluate the candidate’s General Knowledge, Mental ability, current affairs and aptitude to pursue the study of Law. The Test consists of three parts. Total number of questions will be 120 and the duration of test is 90 minutes. Maximum marks are 120.

Part – A: Consists of 30 questions carrying 30 marks: General Knowledge and Mental Ability

Part – B: Consists of 30 questions carrying 30 marks: Current Affairs Part – C: Consists of 60 questions carrying 60 marks: Aptitude for the Study of Law. In the questions in

Part – C: Aptitude for the study of Law, elementary knowledge of the basic principles of the Law and Constitution of India on the part of the Student is assumed

For 5 year Law Course, the standard expected is of Intermediate level and for 3 year Law Course, the standard expected is of Degree Level.

AP PGLCET:

A Single entrance test is conducted for all the courses of LL.M. It is of 90 minutes duration and consists of 120 questions of 1 mark each. Part-A consists of 40 questions (Jurisprudence 20, Constitutional Law 20; Total 40 questions of 1 mark each); and Part -B consists of 80 questions (public International Law 16,Mercantile Law 16, Labour Law 16, Crimes and Torts 16, and IPR & Other Laws 16).. The Questions will be objective type including multiple choices questions, matching items. Each Question contains four alternative answers and candidates have to pick up the correct answer from among the choices given.

Qualifying marks in AP LAWCET-2020:

The qualifying percentage of marks in the Entrance Test is 35% (i.e. 42 marks out of total 120 marks). There will be no minimum qualifying marks for S.Cs & S.Ts for ranking.

Qualifying marks in AP PGLCET-2020:

The qualifying percentage of marks in the Entrance Test is 25%. (i.e. 30 marks out of total 120 marks). There will be no qualifying marks for S.Cs & S.Ts for ranking.

AP LAWCET-2020 Results:

a. Evaluation: Every care will be taken to avoid errors in evaluation, checking, scrutiny, tabulation and ranking. Hence, request for retotalling or revaluation or personal identification of scripts will not be entertained.

b. Ranking: The Candidates will be ranked in the order of merit based on the marks obtained in the AP LAWCET-2020 / AP PGLCET-2020. In case of tie the relative rank will be decided as mentioned below:

i) By considering the marks secured in Part-C of AP LAWCET and if the tie still persists marks obtained in Part-B in AP LAWCET shall be taken into consideration.

ii) If the tie still persists they may be bracketed together for the purpose of ranking and seniority in age may be considered at the time of admission.

c. Rank obtained in AP LAWCET-2020 is valid for admission into 3 year / 5 year Law Courses, as the case may be, for the academic year 2020-2021 only.

AP PGLCET-2020 Results:

a) Evaluation: Every care will be taken to avoid errors in evaluation, checking, scrutiny, tabulation and ranking.

b) Ranking: The Candidates will be ranked as per the total marks obtained in the Entrance Test. If there is a tie in total marks, the marks obtained in Part-A of Entrance Test will be considered for awarding the rank. If the tie persists they may be bracketed together for the purpose of ranking and seniority in age may be considered at the time of admission.

d. The Candidates are advised to download the Rank Card from the web site https://sche.sp.gov.in/lawcet after one week of the publication of results. In case of the any difficulty in downloading the Rank Card the candidates are advised to contact the Convener’s office.

SYLLABUS FOR AP PGLCET – 2020

The candidates should be thorough in jurisprudence, constitutional law, Public International law, mercantile law, labour laws, crimes and torts, IPR & other laws. However concentration should be on the following. Part-A: 40 Questions ….. 40 marks

I) JURISPRUDENCE: 20Questions …20 marks Schools of Jurisprudence – Sources of Law, Custom Precedent and Legislation, Rights and duties – Ownership and Possession, Persons, Obligation, Property, Liability, Legal Sanctions.

II) CONSTITUTIONAL LAW: 20Questions …20 marks Nature of the constitution: Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, Executive, Judiciary and Legislature, Center-State Relations, Emergency provisions, Amendments to the constitution. Part-B: 80 Questions ….. 80 marks

III) PUBLIC INTERNATIONAL LAW: 16Questions … 16 marks International Law and Municipal Law, Subjects, State Territory, Air, Sea and outer space, Nationality and Statelessness, Extradition, Asylum, State Jurisdiction, United Nations.

IV) MERCANTILE LAW: 16Questions … 16 marks General Principles of Contract (Sections. 1-75, Indian Contract Act-1872).

V) LABOUR LAW: 16Questions … 16 marks Trade Union Act 1926. Industrial Disputes Act 1947.

VI) CRIMES and TORTS: CRIMES: 16Questions … 16 marks

  • Indian Penal Code -General Principles & General Exceptions. TORTS: General principles of Tort, , Defences, Joint liability,
  • State liability for torts; Consumer Protection Act,1986

VII) IPR & OTHER LAWS: 16Questions … 16 marks

Copy right Act, 1957; Patents Act, 2005; Environmental Protection Act, 1986; Human Rights,The Protection of Human Rights

Act, 1993, Salient features of Information Technology Act, 2000 and Right to Information Act 2005

X. GENERAL INFORMATION / INSTRUCTIONS:

1. The Convener or/and the Common Entrance Test Committee reserve the right to reject the application of a candidate at any stage, if.a) the application is incomplete. b) the candidate fails to satisfy the prescribed eligibility conditions. c) false or incorrect information is furnished.

2. Candidate shall with utmost precaution choose the appropriate test 3-year / 5-year / LLM based on his qualification. Convener, APLAWCET-2019 is not responsible for wrong selection of the entrance test paper to be attempted.

3. Any change whatsoever, including that of caste/community status or category, shall not be permitted to be made in the filled in application once it is submitted to the Convener. No correspondence will be entertained in this regard

4. The Convener is not responsible for the non – submission of application by the notified date and time for any reason whatsoever.

5. The Candidate should preserve the hall ticket to produce it at the time of test and later at the time of entry into the course.

6. Applicants should download hall tickets from website https://sche.ap.gov.in/lawcet only.

7. The appearance at AP LAWCET – 2020 does not entitle any candidate to be considered for entry into the course automatically.

8 The rank obtained with the benefit of relaxation of minimum qualifying marks at the APLAWCET-2020 by any candidate, claiming to belong to SC/ST category, will be cancelled in case the claim is found to be invalid later or at any point of time.

9. The selection of candidates and allotment to colleges will be on the basis of rank obtained at the Common Entrance Test and other conditions laid down.

10. Candidate will not be permitted into the exam hall after the scheduled time on the date of entrance test.

11. In any litigation, the party to be impleaded shall be the Convener of the APLAWCET2020 only and this shall be subject to the jurisdiction of High Court of A.P.

12. Candidates are advised to practise the mock tests placed in the website and familiarize with the mode of attempting the online test.

1. For any queries related to AP LAWCET 2020 you may send an e-mail to lawcet.convener2020@gmail.com

2. For any corrections related to Category-1 and Category-2 in the Filled in Online Application Form, the candidates have to STRICTLY follow the procedure as given below:

CORRECTIONS IN THE AP LAWCET 2020 FILLED IN ONLINE APPLICATION FORM

CATEGORY 1

Items that CANNOT be CHANGED by the Candidate, but written request can be made to the CONVENER,APLAWCET2020 through e-mail with valid scanned documents to lawcet.convener2020@gmail.com. While sending the request for corrections, the candidates have to clearly mention Payment ID, Qualifying Exam HT Number (Diploma/Degree), Mobile Number, Date of Birth and SSC HT Number.

ISSUE/CORRECTIONSCANNED DOCUMENTS TO BE SENT
AP LAWCET 2020 Branch changeQualifying Examination Hall Ticket (Diploma/Degree)
Name of the CandidateSSC Mark Memo
Father’s NameSSC Mark Memo
Date of Birth (as per SSC or Equivalent)SSC Mark Memo
SignatureScanned Signature
PhotographCorrect Photograph in required jpeg format
Qualifying Hall Ticket Number (Diploma/Degree)Scanned Copy of Qualifying Examination Hall Ticket (Diploma/Degree)

CATEGORY 2

Items that canbe CHANGED by the Candidate during the permitted period (20.04.2020 to 21.04.2020)

Qualifying ExaminationLocal Area Status
Qualifying Exam Year of Appearing / PassingNon Minority / Minority
Medium of Instruction in Qualifying ExamAnnual Income of the Parents
Place of StudySTUDY DETAILS
Mother’ s NameSSC Hall Ticket Number
Birth State, Birth DistrictGender
CommunityAddress for Correspondence
Mobile NumberE-mail id
Special CategoryAadhaar Card details

NOTE

1) Corrections related to CATEGORY-1 items will be done at CONVENER, AP LAWCET-2020 Office, subject to thorough Verification of the Valid Documents and Approval bythe Committee.

2) Corrections related to CATEGORY-2 in the Filled in Online Application Form should be done by the candidateduringthepermittedperiod(20.04.2020 to 21.04.2020)only.Thesecorrectionswillnotbe entertained in any form at Test Centers or CONVENER, AP LAWCET-2020 office.

Osmania University Circular

Preventive Measures to curtail the spread of Novel Coronavirus (COVID-19) Withholding of maintaining attendance through Aadhar based Biometric System – Communicated.

The Secretary, University Grants Commission, New Delhi through the letter cited has requested the University to instruct all the colleges under their jurisdiction to take certain preventive measures to curtail the spread of Novel Coronavirus (COVID — 19).

In view of the above, since there is a chance of transmission of virus through touching infected surfaces, as a preventive measure to curb spreading of Novel Coronavirus (COVID — 19) the Principals of Campus/Constituent and all affiliated colleges under the Jurisdiction of Osmania University are hereby informed to withhold recording the attendance of staff and students of their college through Aadhar Based Biometric System until further orders and maintain Attendance Registers as it was done earlier.

IGNOU OPENMAT-XLVII

IMPORTANT DATES

Online Submission of Application Form28th Feb. 2020 to 23rd March 2020
Last Date of Successful Transaction of Fee through Credit/Debit Card/Net-Banking up to 11:59 pm23rd March 2020

Fee Payable by candidates in INR

OPENMAT XLVII- UR, OBC categoryRs. 800/-
SC, ST, EWSRs. 600/-
Correction in Particulars of Application Form on Website only28-29 March 2020
Downloading of Admit Cards from NTA website09th April, 2020 onwards
Dates of Examination29th April, 2020
Duration of Examination03 Hours
Timing of Examination09:30-12:30 Hrs
Centre of ExaminationAs indicated on the Admit Card
Websitehttps://ignouexams.nta.nic.in.

1. Candidates can apply for IGNOU OPENMAT-XLVII “Online” only on the website https://ignouexams.nta.nic.in.

2. Online Application Form may be submitted by accessing NTA website https://ignouexams.nta.nic.in. The Application Form other than online mode will not be accepted, in any case.

3. Before filling the online entrance form, please read carefully regarding the eligibility and programme details given in e-prospectus available at https://ignouexams.nta.nic.in.

4. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as given in the Information Bulletin and on NTA website https://ignouexams.nta.nic.in. Candidates not complying with the instructions shall be summarily disqualified.

5. Candidates must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number provided in the Online Application Form are of their own, as all information/ communication will be sent by NTA through e-mail on the given e-mail address or SMS on the given mobile number only.

Candidate’s PhotographFile size must be between 10 kb to 200 kb.
Candidate’s Signature in running handFile size must be between 4 kb to 30 kb.

ABOUT THE MANAGEMENT PROGRAMME OF IGNOU

The Management Programme (MP) of Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) has been designed with the aim to offer quality flexible education at the doorstep of the learners. It focuses on catering to the needs of the specific target groups. The programme is offered to provide developmental avenue for students, working personnel and professional for acquiring management qualifications to upgrade and refine their management skills, capabilities and orientation.

Admission shall be done on the basis of the score obtained in the on-line entrance test conducted by NTA. After qualifying in the OPENMAT, a learner will have to apply for admission on the specified APPLICATION FORM which is given in the e-Prospectus, available on the university website, www.ignou.ac.in

Incomplete and late application forms will be summarily rejected without referring to the candidate. Application Form for Admission to Management Programme is submitted only at the time of first entry to the programme and subsequent continuation in the programme will be through RE-REGISTRATION FORMS, which is through online mode.

(1) Duration:

The minimum duration of the programme is two years. However, the maximum period allowed for completion of the programme is five years.

(2) Medium of Instruction: English

(3) Programme Fee:

Fees are charged course wise which is Rs.2,000/- per course. Master of Business Administration (MBA) Programme consists of 21 courses in all. Project Course (MS-100) is equivalent to 2 courses.

(4) Programme Structure:

The MBA Programme consists of 21 courses in all. These comprise of:

  • All the courses from MS-1 to MS-11.
  • Five courses from any one of the specialization streams.
  • Two Compulsory Courses (MS- 91, MS-95) and any one elective course out of MS 92/93/94/96/97.
  • Project Course (MS-100) equivalent to 2 courses.

IGNOU follows a modular approach in its programme offering viz., if a student takes admission into MBA and for some reason or the other is not able to complete all the courses s/he is provided with exit point. If s/he completes 6 courses in a particular specialization along with the compulsory basic course s/he would be awarded Post Graduate Diploma in that particular specialization.

(5) Eligibility Criteria and Qualifications:

The eligibility criteria for admission to MBA programme is as follows:

  • Any graduate (including Chartered Accountancy/Cost Accountancy/Company Secretaryship) with 50% marks for general category/45% for reserved category as per government of India rules. (In case of grading system, students should ensure that his/her CGPA should meet the eligibility percentage requirement).
  • Clearance of OPENMAT entrance test of IGNOU conducted by National Testing Agency (NTA).

There is no age limit for seeking admission to this programme.

(6) Reservation:

The University provides reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, non-creamy layer of OBC, War Widows, Kashmri Migrants and Physically Handicapped Learners, as per the Government of India rules, for admission to its various programmes. However, submission of forged certificate under any category shall lead not only to cancellation of admission but also be legally implicated as per Govt. of India rules.

(7) Scheme of Examination:

1.The OPENMAT Entrance Exam consists of four tests (Sections). They are:

  • Test 1 comprises of 30 questions of General Awareness,
  • Test II consists of 50 questions of English language,
  • Test III is of Quantitative Aptitude which consists of 50 questions, and
  • Test IV is of Reasoning consisting of 70 questions.

2. All these tests will be conducted in one session of 3 hours. The total number of questions for all the four tests is 200 and each question carries 1 mark. There is no negative marking for wrong answers.

3.Sample OPENMAT Entrance test paper is available in e-prospectus to familiarize students with the examination scheme and type of questions. E-Prospectus can be down loaded from IGNOU or NTA website

4.Calculators, cell phones, books, slide-rules, notebooks or any other written notes will not be allowed inside the examination hall.

Registration and Application Process:

In order to appear in IGNOU OPENMAT XLVII, the candidates are required to apply online as per procedure detailed below. The Application Form other than online mode will not be accepted. Before filling and submitting the online form, candidates should download the Information Bulletin and e-Prospectus and read them carefully. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as given in the Information Bulletin and on NTA website. Application Forms not complying with the instructions are liable to be rejected.

The candidates are advised to ensure the following points before filling the Online Application Forms:

(i) The candidates shall ensure their eligibility to appear in the test.

(ii) The Candidate must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number provided in the Online Application Form are of their own (which cannot be changed later) as communication may be sent by NTA through email or SMS.

(iii) The Candidate should not give the postal address, Mobile Number or e-mail ID of Coaching Centre in the Online Application Form.

(iv) Online submission of application may be done by accessing the NTA official website: https://ignouexams.nta.nic.in.

(v) Online Application Form cannot be withdrawn once it is submitted successfully.

(vi) Application Form of candidates who do not fulfill the eligibility criteria shall be rejected.

(vii) A candidate is allowed to submit only one Application Form. If a candidate submits more than one Application Form, the candidature is likely to be cancelled.

(viii) Request for change in any particular in the Application Form shall not be entertained under any circumstances. (Note: However, a chance may be given to the candidates to correct/modify/edit some of the particular(s) of the application form online only, during 28th -29th March, 2020).

(ix) The Centres (Cities) indicated for the entrance examination by a candidate is only an option. The actual Centre shall be allotted by NTA and it shall be final. No correspondence in this regard shall be entertained. It is mandatory for candidates to fill all four choices as options.

Steps to Complete the Application Process: Application Form may be submitted in the following four simple steps:

Step IRegistration for online application and note down the system generated Application number for future Reference
Step IIFilling Online Application Form
Step IIIUpload scanned images of Candidate’s Photograph (between 10 kb – 200 kb) and Candidate’s Signature (between 4 kb – 30kb) in JPG/JPEG format.
Step IVMake payment of fee using suitable mode of payment as per details given in this section and keep proof of fee paid.

Note:

1. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step-3 and Step-4 are not completed. Such forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be entertained.

2. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA under any circumstances.

3. There is no provision to upload any certificate/marks sheet etc., with the application.

4. The entire application process is online. Therefore, candidates are not required to send/submit any document(s) including Confirmation Page to NTA through Post/ Fax/By Hand.

Before beginning the process of filling the Online Application Form, please keep the following information ready with you:

  • Govt. Identity Details like Aadhaar Number (last 4 digits)/Election Card (EPIC No.)/Passport number/Ration Card Number/ PAN Number/ Other valid Government identity proofs.
  • Address for communication, Mobile Number, email id, etc.
  • Scanned images of latest Photograph (size of 10 kb to 200 kb) in JPG/ JPEG format only
  • Scanned image of Signature (size of 4 kb to 30 kb) in JPG/ JPEG format only
  • Bank details for payment of Fee, for uploading as part of submission of online application.
  • Copy of Board/ University Certificate for Candidate’s Name, Mother’s Name, Father’s Name and Date of Birth

Step I: Registration for Online Application:

  • Fill in the basic information and note down the system generated Application Number
  • Candidate’s Name/ Mother’s Name/ Father’s Name: Provide Candidate’s Name, Mother’s Name, Father’s Name as given in the Secondary School Examination or equivalent Board/ University Certificate.
  • Date of Birth: Provide Candidate’s date of birth as recorded in Secondary School Examination or equivalent Board/ University certificate in ‘dd/mm/yyyy’ format.
  • Mobile Number and e-mail Address: Candidates must provide own Mobile Number and e-mail address. (Please note only one e-mail address and one Mobile Number are valid for one application)

Step II: Filling the Online Application Form:

  • Other Backward Classes (OBC)- Non Creamy Layer as per the Central list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website (www.ncbc.nic.in). Thus, the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose ‘General’.
  • Provide complete postal address with PIN Code (Mailing Address as well as Permanent Address).
  • Choice of Cities for Examination Centres: The candidate should select any four cities of their choice for examination centre of IGNOU OPENMAT XLVII from the drop down menu.
  • Under no circumstances the choice of cities for Test Centre filled in the Application Form will be changed.

Step III: Uploading the Scanned Images & Selection of Test Centre:

(a) Uploading the Candidate’s Photograph:

  • Passport size photograph is to be used for uploading on Online Application Form and also for pasting on Attendance Sheet at the examination centre.
  • The candidate should scan his/her passport size photograph for uploading. File size must be between 10 kb to 200 kb.
  • The photograph must be taken on or after 7 th February, 2020 indicating clearly the name of candidate along with the date of taking the photograph. Photograph should not be with cap or goggles.
  • Spectacles are allowed if being used regularly.
  • Polaroid and Computer generated photos are not acceptable.
  • Applications not complying with these instructions or with unclear photographs are liable to be rejected.
  • Candidates may please note that if it is found that photograph uploaded is fabricated i.e. deshaped or seems to be hand-made or computer made, the form of the candidate will be rejected and the same would be considered as using unfair means and the candidate would be dealt with accordingly.
  • Application without photograph shall be rejected. The photograph need not be attested. Candidates are advised to take 6 to 8 passport size colour photographs with white background.

(b) Uploading Candidate’s Signature:

  • The candidates are required to upload the full signature in running hand writing in the appropriate box given in the Online Application Form. Writing full name in the Box in Capital letters would not be accepted as “signature” and the Application Form would be rejected. Further, unsigned Online Application Forms will also be rejected.
  • The candidate should put his full signature on white paper with Black Ink pen and scan for uploading. File size must be between 4 kb to 30kb.

(Note: Candidate must ensure that the uploaded images are clear and proper.)

(c) Cities for Examination Centres:

  • A list of States and Cities for OPENMAT XLVII Examination is given in the following Annexure–I.
  • While applying, candidates must select four Examination City Centres in order of their preference. Since the seating capacity at each centre is limited, they will be considered for the allotment of the examination city centres as per NTA norms.
  • NTA can change the examination city centre opted by the candidate to another nearby centre, if number of candidates are more/less at any examination city centre.
  • The Examination City Centre, once opted, shall not be changed.
  • The Admit Card will be uploaded on NTA website https://ignouexams.nta.nic.in. Please check the admit card carefully for your Name, Subject Group, Date of Birth, Gender, Examination Centre Name, City, and Category, etc.
  • In case of any problem related to Admit card, please contact the given helpline numbers 0120- 6895200 between 09:00 am to 6:00pm.

Stage IV: Payment of Fee

Fee Payable by candidates

OPENMAT XLVII- UR, OBC categoryRs.800/-
SC, ST, EWSRs.600/-

Method of Fee Payment

After completing Step 3 of online Application Form, candidates may remit the examination fee (Step 4) by choosing the following options:

1. Through Debit/Credit card – Candidates need to check the validity of the Debit/Credit Card, while logging on to website for submitting Application Form. Candidate should enter the information asked for and make the required payment through Debit/Credit Card.

2. Through Net Banking – Check the balance in account and keep all credentials ready while logging on to website for submitting Application Form. Candidate should Login with his/her credentials of net banking and make payment through Net Banking.

Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’ the candidates are advised as following:

1. If the fee is paid through credit/debit card and status is not OK, it means the transaction is cancelled. Therefore, such candidates have to pay the fee once again and ensure the OK fee status.

2. For cancelled transactions, the amount will, automatically, be refunded to concerned credit/debit card within 15 days of last date of submission of Application Form.

Generation of Confirmation Page confirms the final submission of Application Form. If Confirmation Page has not been generated, this means that Application Form has not been submitted successfully.

To avoid any kind of inconvenience or last minute rush or unforeseen difficulties, candidates are advised to submit Online Application Form without waiting for the last date. NTA will not be responsible for network problems or any other problem of this nature in submission of online application during the last day.

Admit Card for IGNOU OPENMAT XLVII:

  • The Admit Card is issued provisionally to the candidates, subject to their satisfying the eligibility conditions.
  • The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website w.e.f. 09th April, 2020 and appear for the Examination at the given Centre on the Date and Timing as indicated in their Admit Card.
  • No candidate will be allowed to appear at any examination centre, on Date and Timings other than that allotted to her/him in the Admit card.
  • In case candidates are unable to download Admit Cards from the website, the candidate should approach the Help Line……………. between 9:00 am to 7:00 pm all days.
  • The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully and follow them during the conduct of the examination.
  • In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or his/her photograph and signatures shown in the Admit Card and Confirmation Page, the candidate may immediately approach the Help Line between 9:00 am to 6:00 pm all days. In such cases, candidates would appear in the examination with the already downloaded Admit Card. However, NTA will take necessary action to make correction in the record later.

Important Notes:

a. Candidate may please note that Admit Cards will not be sent by post.

b. In no case, the duplicate Admit Card for IGNOU OPENMAT- XLVII would be issued at the Examination Centres.

c. Candidate must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made therein.

d. Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Cards in good condition for future reference.

e. No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose Applications are found to be incomplete for any reasons (including indistinct/ doubtful photographs/unsigned Applications) or who do not fulfill the eligibility criteria for the examination.

f. Issue of Admit Cards, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility which shall be further scrutinized at subsequent stages of admission process

  • In case of any technical issue or due to a natural disaster, if an exam in a particular shift/subject has to be rescheduled, NTA may follow the process of normalization of the two test forms as per policy.
  • Selection of a candidate in the test is provisional subject to being found otherwise eligible for Admission.
  • In case a candidate is found providing incorrect information or the identity is proved to be false at any time in the future, the candidate shall face penal action as per the law.
  • Please keep the following safely with you till the admission process is completed:

i. At least four printouts of the Confirmation Page of Online Application Form.

ii. Print Proof of fee paid.

iii. Photographs (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) – 6 to 8 passport size photographs need to be kept aside. iv. Copy of the Admit Card.

Cities for NTA-IGNOU Test on 29th April, 2020

S.No.StateCityCity Code
1Andhra PradeshChiralaAP04
2Andhra PradeshGunturAP07
3Andhra PradeshKakinadaAP09
4Andhra PradeshKurnoolAP10
5Andhra PradeshNelloreAP11
6Andhra PradeshRajahmundryAP13
7Andhra PradeshTirupathiAP16
8Andhra PradeshVijayawadaAP17
9Andhra PradeshVisakhapatnamAP18
10Andhra PradeshVizianagaramAP19
11Arunachal PradeshItanagarAL01
12AssamDibrugarhAM01
13AssamGuwahatiAM02
14AssamJorhatAM03
15AssamSilcharAM04
16AssamTezpurAM05
17BiharArrahBR09
18BiharBhagalpurBR02
19BiharDarbhangaBR04
20BiharMuzaffarpurBR06
21BiharPatnaBR07
22BiharPurneaBR08
23ChandigarhChandigarh/MohaliCH01
24ChhattisgarhBhilai NagarCG01
25ChhattisgarhBilaspurHP01
26ChhattisgarhRaipurCG03
27Delhi -NCRDelhi/New DelhiDL01
28Delhi -NCRFaridabadHR03
29Delhi -NCRGhaziabadUP07
30Delhi -NCRGreater Noida/NoidaUP09
31Delhi -NCRGurugramHR04
32Delhi -NCRMeerutUP14
33GoaPANAJI/MADGAONGO01
34GujaratAhmedabad/GandhinagarGJ01
35GujaratAnandGJ02
36GujaratMehsanaGJ08
37GujaratRajkotGJ10
38GujaratSuratGJ11
39GujaratVadodaraGJ12
40HaryanaAmbalaHR01
41HaryanaYamuna NagarHR10
42Himachal PradeshShimlaHP06
43HaryanaKurukshetraHR07
44Himachal PradeshHamirpurHP03
45J&KJammuJK02
46J&KSrinagar (J & K)JK04
47JharkhandBokaroJH01
48JharkhandDhanbadJH02
49JharkhandHazaribaghJH05
50JharkhandJamshedpurJH03
51JharkhandRanchiJH04
52KarnatakaBelagumKK02
53KarnatakaBengaluruKK04
54KarnatakaHubballi(Hubli)KK10
55KarnatakaKalaburagi(Gulbarga)KK08
56KarnatakaMangaluru(Mangalore)KK12
57KarnatakaMysuru(Mysore)KK14
58KarnatakaShivamogga(Shimoga)KK15
59KarnatakaUdupiKK17
60KeralaErnakulamKL04
61KeralaKannurKL07
62KeralaKollamKL09
63KeralaKottayamKL11
64KeralaKozhikodeKL12
65KeralaThrissurKL18
66KeralaTrivandrumKL17
67Madhya PradeshBhopalMP03
68Madhya PradeshGwaliorMP06
69Madhya PradeshIndoreMP07
70Madhya PradeshJabalpurMP08
71Madhya PradeshSagarMP12
72Madhya PradeshSatnaMP13
73Madhya PradeshUjjainMP15
74MaharashtraAmravatiMR03
75MaharashtraAurangabadMR04
76MaharashtraJalgaonMR13
77MaharashtraKolhapurMR14
78MaharashtraMumbaiMR16
79MaharashtraNagpurMR17
80MaharashtraNandedMR18
81MaharashtraNasikMR19
82MaharashtraPuneMR22
83MeghalayaShillongMG01
84MizoramAizawlMZ01
85NagalandKohimaNL02
86OdishaBalasoreOR02
87OdishaBerhampurOR03
88OdishaBhubaneswarOR04
89OdishaCuttackOR05
90OdishaDhenkanalOR06
91OdishaRourkelaOR08
92OdishaSambalpurOR09
93PunjabAmritsarPB01
94PunjabBhatindaPB02
95PunjabJalandharPB04
96PunjabLudhianaPB05
97PunjabPatialaPB08
98RajasthanAjmerRJ01
99RajasthanBikanerRJ05
100RajasthanJodhpurRJ07
101RajasthanSikarRJ09
102RajasthanUdaipurRJ11
103Tamil NaduChennaiTN01
104Tamil NaduCoimbatoreTN02
105Tamil NaduMaduraiTN08
106Tamil NaduSalemTN11
107Tamil NaduTirunelveliTN15
108Tamil NaduTrichyTN14
109Tamil NaduVelloreTN18
110TelanganaHyderabadTL01
111TelanganaKarimnagarTL02
112TelanganaWarangalTL07
113Uttar PradeshAgraUP01
114Uttar PradeshAligarhUP02
115Uttar PradeshAllahabadUP03
116Uttar PradeshBareillyUP04
117Uttar PradeshGorakhpurUP08
118Uttar PradeshJhansiUP10
119Uttar PradeshKanpurUP11
120Uttar PradeshLucknowUP12
121Uttar PradeshMoradabadUP15
122Uttar PradeshMuzaffarnagarUP16
123Uttar PradeshVaranasiUP18
124UttarakhandDehradunUK01
125UttarakhandHaldwaniUK02
126UttarakhandRoorkeeUK06
127West BengalAsansolWB01
128West BengalHooghlyWB06
129West BengalKalyaniWB08
130West BengalKolkataWB10
131West BengalSiliguriWB11

ICAR AIEEA (UG – 2020)

The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has entrusted the responsibility of conducting All India Entrance Examinations for admission to UG, PG & Ph.D Courses in AUs, and award of scholarships and fellowships to the NTA from 2019 onwards. 

The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is the apex body for coordinating, guiding, and managing research and education in agriculture in the entire country under the aegis of DARE, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Considering the importance of agricultural education, the University Education Commission (1948) chaired by Dr. S. Radhakrishnan recommended the establishment of Rural Universities in the country. As a result, the first State Agricultural University was established in 1960 at Pantnagar on the pattern of the Land Grant Colleges of the United States. The ICAR-AU system of India has 75 Agricultural Universites comprising 64 State Agricultural, Veterinary, Horticultural and Fisheries Universities (SAUs), 4 ICAR-DUs, viz. IARI, IVRI, NDRI and CIFE, 3 Central Agricultural Universities (CAU, Imphal, Dr. RPCAU, Pusa and RLB CAU, Jhansi), 4 Central Universities (CUs) having Faculty of Agriculture (BHU, AMU, Viswa Bharati and Nagaland University). The National Agricultural Research and Education System (NARES) of India is one of the largest in the world, admitting more than 15,000 graduates, 11,000 post-graduates, and 2,500 Ph.Ds annually, in different disciplines of Agriculture and Allied Sciences.

1. FEE DETAILS AND IMPORTANT DATES:

Online submission of Application Form (upto 05:00 pm of 31 March, 2020)01.03.2020-31.03.2020
Last date of successful transaction of fee through Credit/Debit Card/Net-Banking/UPI (upto 11:50 pm on 31 March, 2020)01.03.2020-31.03.2020
Fee Payable by candidates General/Unreserved,       Other Backward Classes (OBC)-(NCL)* & UPS**/ EWS***Rs. 750/-
Fee Payable by candidates SC/ST/PwD/TransgenderRs. 375/-
Processing charges & GST are to be paid by the candidate, as applicable 
Correction in particulars of Application Form on website only (No corrections shall be allowed after 02.05.2020)25.04.2020-02.05.2020
Downloading of Admit Cards from NTA website08.05.2020
Date of Examination01.06.2020
Duration of Examination150 minutes (2½  hours)
Timing of Examination9:30 a.m-12:00 noon
Centre, Date and Shift of ExaminationAs indicated on Admit Card
Display of attempted Question Paper and Provisional Answer KeysTo be announced later
Websiteswww.nta.ac.in,
https://icar.nta.nic.in
Declaration of Result on NTA website15.06.2020
Schedule for Online Counsellingon www.icar.org.in after the declaration of result

*Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in. Only the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General/Unreserved.

** Candidates of Remote and Underprivileged States must check their eligibility before applying.

***As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-2/2019-T.S.I dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019, 04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) for admission in Central Educational Institutions.

2. Candidates can apply for AIEEA (UG) 2020 in Online Mode only on the website https://icar.nta.nic.in.

3. The Application Form other than online mode will not be accepted.

4. Only one application is to be submitted by a candidate.

5. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as given in the Information Bulletin and on NTA website www.nta.ac.in, https://icar.nta.nic.in. Candidates not complying with the instructions shall be summarily disqualified.

6. Candidates must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number provided in the Online Application Form are their own as all information/communication will be sent by NTA through e-mail on e-mail address or SMS on given Mobile Number only.

7. Instructions for filling Online Application Form :

  • Download Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form. Read them carefully to ensure your eligibility.
  • Follow the 4 steps given below to Apply Online:

Step-1: Apply for Online Registration using unique Email Id and Mobile No. Step-2: Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated Application No.

Step-3: Upload scanned images of Candidate’s Photograph (file size: 10 kb – 200 kb) and Candidate’s Signature (file size: 4kb – 30kb) and Thumb impression (file size: 3kb-30kb) in JPG/JPEG format. Step-4: Pay fee using SBI/Syndicate/HDFC Payment Gateway through Debit Card/Credit Card/Net Banking/UPI and keep proof of fee paid. In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of fee then the transaction is cancelled, and amount will be refunded to the candidate’s account. However, the candidate has to make another transaction, in case the Confirmation Page is not generated.

  • All the 4 Steps can be done together or at separate times.

8. Candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA website and check their e-mails/SMS regularly for latest updates.

9. Candidate shall appear at their own cost at the Examination Centre on the date and shift indicated on their Admit Card issued by NTA.

10. Any request to change the Examination Centre, Date , Shift and Subject provided on the Admit Card will not be considered under any circumstances.

Note:

1. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step-3 and step-4 are not complete. Such forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be entertained.

2. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA under any circumstances.

3. The entire application process of AIEEA (UG) 2020is online, including uploading of scanned images, Payment of Fees, and Printing of Confirmation Page. Therefore, candidates are not required to send/submit any document(s) including Confirmation Page to NTA /ICAR through Post/ Fax/ E-mail/by Hand.

Candidates are NOT allowed to carry Instrument/Geometry/Pencil box, Handbag, Purse, any kind of Paper/ Stationery/Textual material (printed or written material), Eatables and Water (loose or packed), Mobile Phone/ Ear Phone/ Microphone/ Pager, Calculator, DocuPen, Slide Rules, Log Tables, Camera, Tape Recorder, Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, any metallic item or electronic gadgets/ devices in the Examination Hall/Room. Diabetic students will be allowed to carry eatables like sugar tablets/fruits (like banana/apple/orange) and transparent water bottle to the Examination Hall. However, they will not be allowed to carry packed foods like chocolates/candy/sandwich etc.

DISCLAIMER

1. Candidates are advised to read the Information Bulletin carefully and go through the instructions regarding filling of Online Application Form given on AIEEA (UG) 2020 website www.nta.ac.in, https://icar.nta.nic.in before starting online registration.

2. Candidate should ensure that all information entered during the online registration process is correct.

3. Online information provided by candidates like name of candidate, contact/address details, category, PwD status, educational qualification details, date of birth, etc during online registration for AIEEA (UG) 2020 will be treated as correct/final and NTA will not entertain, under any circumstances, any request for change in information provided by the candidates.

4. NTA disclaims any liability that may arise to a candidate(s) due to incorrect information provided by the candidate(s) during online registration process.

5. NTA does not edit/modify/alter any information entered by the candidates after completion of application form under any circumstances. Any request for change in information thereafter will not be entertained. Therefore, candidates are advised to exercise utmost caution for filling up correct details in application form.

Usage of Data and Information: NTA can use the data provided by the End User (test taker in this case) for internal purpose(s) including training, research and development, analysis and other permissible purpose(s).

1.1 About National Tetsing Agency (NTA)

The Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), Government of India (GOI) has established National Testing Agency (NTA) as an independent autonomous and self-sustained premier testing organization under Society Registration Act, 1860 for conducting efficient, transparent and international standards tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admissions to premier higher education institutions.

The objectives of NTA, inter-alia, include:

i. To conduct efficient, transparent and international standard tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admission.

ii. To undertake research on educational, professional and testing system to identify gaps in the knowledge systems and take steps for bridging them.

iii. To produce and disseminate information and research on education and professional development standards.

The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has entrusted the responsibility of conducting All India Competitive Examinations for admission to Bachelor UG, Masters PG & Ph.D Courses in Agricultural Universities (AUs) and award of scholarships and fellowships, to the NTA from 2019 onwards.

1.2 About ICAR

The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is the apex body for coordinating, guiding, and managing research and education in agriculture in the entire country under the aegis of DARE, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Considering the importance of agricultural education, the University Education Commission (1948) chaired by Dr. S. Radhakrishnanrecommended the establishment of Rural Universities in the country. As a result, the first State Agricultural University was established in 1960 at Pantnagar on the pattern of the Land Grant Colleges of the United States.

The ICAR-AU system of India has 74 Agricultural Universites comprising 63 State Agricultural, Veterinary, Horticultural and Fisheries Universities (SAUs), 4 ICAR-DUs, viz. IARI, IVRI, NDRI and CIFE, 3 Central Agricultural Universities (CAU, Imphal, Dr. RPCAU, Pusa and RLB CAU, Jhansi), 4 Central Universities (CUs) having Faculty of Agriculture (BHU, AMU, Viswa Bharati and Nagaland University). The National Agricultural Research, Education and Extension System (NAREES) of India is one of the largest in the world, admitting more than 27000 graduates, 14000 post-graduates and 4700 Ph.Ds annually, in different disciplines of Agriculture and Allied Sciences.

During 2019-20, against the total of 2784 Seats, 2189 candidates were recommended by ICAR for admission to accredited Bachelor degree programmes in 59 accredited AUs under the ICAR-AU system.

1.3 AIEEA (UG) 2020

In 2020, All India Entrance Examination for Admission, AIEEA (UG) shall be conducted for admission to Bachelor Degree programmes in Agriculture and Allied Sciences (other than Veterinary Sciences), 2 at Agricultural Universities on 15% of the University seats (100% seats in RLB CAU Jhansi, NDRI Karnal and Dr. RP CAU Pusa, Bihar). Further, not more than 40% candidates from any one state shall be admitted in any agricultural university/subject.

The AIEEA (UG)-2020 examination for the academic session 2020-21 will be conducted at 178 cities (Annexure-I) all over the country, enabling participation of a large number of candidates seeking admission in Bachelor degree programmes in accredited AUs in different disciplines. Candidates declared eligible for registration and choice filling for counselling by ICAR will only be considered for allocation of subject and the Agricultural University. There is no provision of direct nomination for admission through ICAR in any Bachelor degree programme without qualifying in ICAR AIEEA (UG).

2.1 Degree Programmes available for Admission in 2020-21.

During academic session 2020-21, admission to 11 Bachelor degree programmes of four years duration in the subjects enlisted in Annexure-III is available to Indian Nationals based on the meritrank in ICAR AIEEA(UG)-2020. Candidates may note that all Undergraduate Degrees in the disciplines of Agricultural Sciences have been declared as professional degrees.

2.2 University-Wise and Subject–Wise Number of Seats Available for Admission

Number of seats available for admission through AIEEA (UG) in different disciplines at accredited Agricultural Universities (including non-accredited RLBCAU, Jhansi and some non-accredited programmes and colleges of Dr. RPCAU, Pusa) for the academic session 2020-21 will be displayed on ICAR website www.icar.org.in at the time of counseling

2.3 Schedule of AIEEA (UG) 2020

Schedule for important examination related activities have been given below.However, candidates are requested to keep themselves updated about the schedule through NTA and ICAR websites www.nta.ac.in, https://icar.nta.nic.in and www.icar.org.in.

Schedule of AIEEA(UG)-2020

Online submission of Application Form (upto 05:00 pm of 31 March, 2020) 01.03.2020-31.03.2020
Last date of successful transaction of fee through Credit/Debit Card/NetBanking/UPI upto 11:50 pm of 31 March, 202001.03.2020-31.03.2020
Correction in particulars of Application Form on website only (No corrections shall be allowed after 02.05.2020)25.04.2020-02.05.2020
Downloading of Admit Cards from NTA website08.05.2020
Date of Examinatio01.06.2020
Duration of Examination150 minutes (2½ hours)
Timing of Examination9:30a.m-12:00 noon
Centre, Date and Shift of ExaminationAs indicated on Admit Card
Display of attempted Question Paper and Provisional Answer KeysTo be announced later
Websiteswww.nta.ac.in,
https://icar.nta.nic.in
Declaration of Result on NTA website15.06.2020
Schedule for Online CounsellingTo be announced by the ICAR on www.icar.org.in after the declaration of result

*Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in. Only the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General/Unreserved.

** Candidates of Remote and Underprivileged States must check their eligibility before applying.

***As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-2/2019-T.S.I dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019, 04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) for admission in Central Educational Institutions.

2.4 Scheme of Examination

The test of AIEEA (UG) 2020is a single test of 02:30 hours duration. Details of the test are as given below:

Mode of ExaminationLAN Based CBT
Duration02:30 hours
Number of Questions150 (50 in each subject)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice with 4 options
Scoring1. 4 marks for each correct response
2. -1 mark for each incorrect response (negative scoring)
3. 0 for non-attempt
Medium of PaperEnglish and Hindi

Note:

1. Each candidate has to attempt/opt/choose only three subjects (PCB/PCM/PCA/ABC) in the examination as per choice in the Application Form (Annexure-IV).

2. The candidates must attempt subjects as per their choice in the Application, so they must exercise choice carefully.

3. In case of any discrepancy between English & Hindi Version of a question, English Version would be considered as valid.

2.5 Syllabus for the Test

The Questions in the test shall be based on the syllabus prescribed by the ICAR, which is available at the website www.icar.org.in.

2.6 Subjects

Candidates need to choose subject as per their Eligilbility Conditions for different UG Programs (Annexure-IV)

2.7 Conditions for the award of National Talent Scholarship (NTS)-2020

National Talent Scholarship would be available through the Agricultural University concerned, to every student admitted on ICAR seat at any Agricultural University in a state outside his/her domicile state. Detailed terms & conditions for the scholarship and admission could be found at the ICAR website .NTS shall be awarded only after completion of Online Counseling.

The candidates are informed that in accordance with the decision taken during XVI Meeting of National Agricultural Education Accreditation Board (NAEAB) held on 28.03.2016, the admissions to the Bachelor’s degree programmes of RLBCAU, Jhansi shall be made through ICAR’s AIEEA (UG). However, it has been decided by the Council that w.e.f. the Academic Session 2020-21, the candidates recommended for admission to these programmes shall not be eligible for the award of NTS(UG). Such candidates may be provided scholarship by RLBCAU, Jhansi from its budget w.e.f. the Academic Session 2020-21.

Similarly, in accordance with the decision taken during XIX Meeting of National Agricultural Education Accreditation Board (NAEAB) held on 20.03.2017, the admissions to the nonaccredited Bachelor’s degree programmes or non-accredited colleges of Dr. RPCAU, Pusa shall be made through ICAR’s AIEEA (UG). However, it has been decided by the Council that w.e.f. the Academic Session 2020-21, the candidates recommended for admission to these programmes shall not be eligible for the award of NTS(UG). Such candidates may be provided scholarship by Dr. RPCAU, Pusa from its budget w.e.f. the Academic Session 2020-21.

However, the students who are already enrolled in non-accredited Bachelor’s degree programmes in non-accredited colleges and received the letter of award of the scholarship from the ICAR shall continue to avail the same in accordance with the prescribed rules and regulations of the scholarship issued by the Council in this regard. The list of ICAR accredited Bachelor’s degree programmes and Colleges of Dr. RPCAU, Pusa is given at Annexure-V.

The award of NTS(UG) to the candidates recommended for admission to RLBCAU, Jhansi and Dr. RPCAU, Pusa may be considered in future subject to accreditation of the university, Bachelor’s degree programmes and Colleges by the Council.

2.8 Reservation Policy

A. SC/ST/OBC-(NCL)/EWS/PwD in each Category

1. There would be reservation of seats for admission as well as ICAR (UG) Scholarship to the extent of 15% for Scheduled Caste and 7.5% for Scheduled Tribe candidates in different disciplines. The reservation ofseats among SC/ST categoriesisinterchangeable i.e., ifsufficient number of candidates are not available to fill up the seats as well as UG Scholarship reserved for ST candidates, these can be filled up from among suitable SC candidates and vice-versa in a given subject as per merit-rank in examination. The original SC/ ST certificate in prescribed form (Annexure-XVII) is required to be produced for verification at the time of admission. Depending on merit and choice, such candidates can also take seat from the General/Unreserved Category.

2. Reservation for candidates belonging to Central OBC-NCL category would be available at BHU, PSB Viswa Bharati; SASARD Nagaland University, CAUs and NDRI as per the latest Government of India directives applicable at the time of counseling and Hon’ble SC Judgment dated 18th August, 2011 and communication of seats by these universities at the time of counseling. Candidates claiming admission under this category have to produce a Central OBC certificate as per specimen enclosed in Annexure-XVIII.

3. Reservation of seats for EWS shall be in accordance with the Gazette Notification No. DL- (N)/04/0007/2003-19, dated 12th January, 2019, Ministry of Law and Justice (Legislative Department), Govt. of India or any further related Govt. of India directive(s) applicable at the time of counseling. The provision shall be applicable only for admission to Central Educational Institutions and not to SAUs and minority educational institutions, if any, under the ICAR-AU system. The unfilled seats remaining under Gen-EWS category will be dereserved to Unreserved (UR)/OPEN category seats The certificate format for EWS candidate is given at Annexure – XIX.

4. Five percent seats are reserved horizontally across the categories in different subjects, for Persons with Disablitiy (PwD) candidates suffering from low vision, hearing impairment, locomotors disability or cerebral palsy with appropriate medical certificate having at least 40% disability and found suitable by the Counseling Committee/University official. The candidate applying for admission under this category should submit a copy of the certificate about being PwD from a Govt. Hospital/Medical Board at the time of admission in allotted University as specimen (Annexure–XIII). The criteria for assessing the degree of handicap could be variable from one subject to another. The decision of the University allotted will be final in this regard. If seat is not available in a particular Category to which the PwD candidate belongs, then the same would be drawn from General Category/Unreserved Category depending upon the availability.

B. Reservation for Remote and Under Privileged States/UT (UPS)

Two percent seats under each discipline would be reserved, horizontally, across categories for the candidates of the remote and under privileged States/UTs namely (i) Andaman & Nicobar Island, (ii) Arunachal Pradesh, (iii) Dadra and Nagar Haveli, (iv) Daman & Diu, (v) Goa, (vi) Lakshadweep, (vii) Manipur, (viii) Meghalaya, (ix) Mizoram, (x) Nagaland, (xi) Sikkim (xii) Tripura and (xiii) Ladakh where educational facilities in Agriculture and Allied Science subjects either do not exist or have no SAU(s) and who qualify this examination. UPS candidates will have to produce domicile certificate issued by the competent authority at the time of admission. There will not be any State quota within this quota.

Note:

1. Candidates need to refer to ICAR website www.icar.org.in for detailed information regarding reservation of seats and/or allocation of scholarship/fellowships for SC/ST/OBC (NCL)/ PwD/UPS/EWS in each category at the time of counseling.

2. The responsibility for verification of the genuineness of SC/ST/OBC (NCL), PwD and UPS certificate will be of the concerned AU where the candidate has been granted admission on the basis of counseling.

2.9 Cities for AIEEA (UG) 2020Examination Centres

The Centre-Cities where the AIEEA (UG)-2020 will be conducted are given at Annexure- I.While applying candidates need to select any four cities of their choice for AIEEA (UG)-2020. The efforts will be made to allot city of examination to the candidates in order of the choice opted by them in their application form. However, due to administrative reasons, a different city of nearby area may be allotted.

  • NTA can change/shift the examination city centre opted by the candidate to another nearby centre, if number of candidates are more at any examination city centre.
  • The Examination City Centre, once opted, shall not be changed.

The decision of the NTA regarding allotment of Centre, Date and Shift shall be final. No further correspondence or request shall be entertained in such case.

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA AND QUALIFICATIONS

3.1 General Eligibility Criteria to appear in AIEEA (UG)- 2020

The eligibility qualifications for various degree programmes with the list of subjects is enlisted at (Annexure-IV).

3.2 Qualifying Examination at 10+2 Level

1. In order to appear in AIEEA (UG) 2020, Indian national candidates must have passed 10+2 Senior Secondary Examination of the Central Board of Secondary Education or any other examination within scope and standard found to be equivalent to the Senior Secondary Examination of a recognised Indian Board/University (Annexure VI), with minimum prescribed marks/grade, after a period of 12 years of study. The medium of instruction in the admitting University will be English.

2. Candidate must have passed any one of the qualifying examinations enumerated above securing not less than 50% marks in aggregate for General, OBC (NCL), UPS, EWS categories and 40% marks in aggregate for SC, ST, Transgender, PwD categories. There will be no rounding-off of the OGPA/percentage of marks of qualifying examination while deciding the basic eligibility of any candidate for admission e.g. if a candidate obtained 49.99% marks in his/her qualifying examination, then it will not be rounded-off to 50%.

3. Candidate having a compartment/ supplementary in any of the subjects will not be eligible unless proof of having cleared the examination with requisite percentage asabove is available.

4. Candidate already appeared in the qualifying examination enumerated above, can also apply but would be required to submit evidence of having satisfied the conditions latest at the time of counselling/admission in the allotted university.

5. Candidate must ensure that he/she fulfills the eligibility requirements for the examination as well as admission as detailed in the Information Bulletin. Applying for AIEEA (UG) 2020, appearing in the examination and qualifying the same does not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility. The applicant for a particular Subject must satisfy the eligibility criteria as specified in this Information Bulletin (or its amendments / corrections).

  • No certificates are required to be uploaded along with the Application Form at the time of online submission.
  • The documents / certificates etc., shall be verified directly at the time of admission in the admitting university. In case the candidate is found not-eligible at any stage, his/her candidature would be summarily rejected and admission will be cancelled.

NOTE: Candidates must note that all applicants shall be bound by the conditions as laid down in this Information Bulletin, and the rules and regulations as enshrined in the admitting University Act, Statutes, Ordinances, notifications and guidelines issued from time to time. It is the sole responsibility of the candidate to ensure that he/she entirely fulfills the specified eligibility before appearing in the examination.

The candidate must ensure that all the eligibility conditions as laid down in the Information Bulletin are fulfilled in toto by him/her, including the minimum age limit, percentage of marks obtained in the 10+2 examination, relevant certificates, etc. and final result in hand at the time of counseling/admission in the university. Please note that ICAR/University will NOT be held responsible for denial of admission to non-eligible candidates.

3.3 Age Limit

Indian Nationals of at least 16 years of age as on 31.08.2020 are eligible to apply for the examination. No relaxation is admissible regarding the minimum age limit.

4.1 Instructions for filling Online Application Form

Candidates may apply for ICAR-AIEEA (UG) 2020 in “Online” Mode ONLY by accessing the website https://nta.ac.in, https://icar.nta.nic.in . The Application Form in other than online mode would not be accepted, in any case. Only one application is to be submitted by a candidate for the same level of programme. More than one application i.e. Multiple application forms submitted by a candidate will be summarily rejected.

In order to appear in ICAR-AIEEA (UG) 2020, the candidates are required to apply online as per procedure detailed below. Before filling and submitting the online form, candidates should download the Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form (Annexure-IX); and read them carefully. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as given in the Information Bulletin and on NTA website. Application Forms not complying with the instructions are liable to be rejected.

Candidates must keep following information ready before filling online Application Form:-

  • Govt Identity Details like Aadhaar Number (last 4 digits)/Election Card (EPIC No.)/Passport number/Ration Card Number/ Bank Account Number/PAN Number/ Other valid Govt Ids.
  • Address for communication, Mobile Number, email id, etc.
  • Scanned images of latest Photograph (size of 10 kb to 200 kb) in JPG/ JPEG format only
  • Scanned image of Signature (size of 4 kb to 30 kb) in JPG/ JPEG format only
  • Scanned image of Thumb Impression, Male-Left and Female-Right (size of 3kb to 30 kb) in JPG/ JPEG format only
  • Bank Account details for payment of Fee, for uploading as part of submission of online application.

To avoid any kind of inconvenience or last minute rush or unforeseen difficulties, candidates are advised to submit Online Application Form without waiting for the last date. NTA will not be responsible for network problems or any other problem of this nature in submission of online application during the last day.

(a) Particulars to be filled in the Online Application Form:

Before beginning the process of filling the Online Application Form, please keep the following information ready with you:

  • Copy of Board/ University Certificate for Candidate’s Name, Mother’s Name, Father’s Name and Date of Birth
  • Type of Identification – Bank A/c Number/ Passport Number/ Ration Card/ Aadhar Card/Election ID/Other Govt ID
  • Certificate of Qualifying examination
  • Your Mailing Address as well as Permanent Address with Pin Code.
  • Four cities for Centres of your choice (Refer Annexure-I)
  • Category Certificate, if applicable
  • Economically Weaker Section (EWS) Certificate, if applicable
  • Proof of Domicile State (Annexure-II)
  • Person with Disability (PwD) Certificate, if applicable
  • e-mail address and Mobile Number of candidates
  • Scanned images in JPG/JPEG format only

Title Page

Candidate’s scanned PhotographFile size must be between 10 kb to 200 kb
Candidate’s scanned Signature in running handFile size must be between 4 kb to 30 kb.
Candidate’s    Thumb  Impression,    Male-Left    and Female-RightFile size must be between 3 kb to 30 kb

Step I: Registration

Fill in the basic information and note down the system generated Application No.

(i) Candidate’s Name/ Mother’s Name/ Father’s Name: Provide Candidate’s Name, Mother’s Name, Father’s Name as given in the Secondary School Examination or equivalent Board/ University Certificate in capital letters

(ii) Date of Birth: dd/mm/yyyy Provide Candidate’s date of birth as recorded in Secondary School Examination or equivalent Board/ University certificate.

(iii) Mobile Number and e-mail Address : Candidates must provide own Mobile Number and e-mail address.

Note: Only one e-mail address and one Mobile Number are valid for one application

Step II: Complete the Application Form

Fill in the complete Application Form

(i) Other Backward Classes (OBC)- Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website (www.ncbc.nic.in). Thus, the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General.

(ii) Economically Weaker Section (EWS) – As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the OM No. 12- 4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-2/2019-T.S.I dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019, 04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Section (EWS) for admission in Central Educational Institutions.

(iii) Provide complete postal address with PIN Code (Mailing Address as well as Permanent Address) for further correspondence. PIN code of Correspondence Address should be given in the space provided for this purpose. Note: The NTA shall not be responsible for any delay/loss in postal transit or for an incorrect Correspondence address given by the Applicant in the Application Form.

(iv) Choice of Cities for Examination Centres: The candidate should select any four cities of their choice for examination of ICAR-AIEEA (UG)2020 given at (Annexure-I).

(v) Under no circumstances the choice of cities for Centre and ICAR-AIEEA-UG subject filled in the Application Form shall be changed by the NTA.

Step III: Uploading of scanned photograph , signature and Thumb Impression

(i) Candidate’s Photograph

  • The photograph must be taken recently. Photograph should not be with cap or goggles. 80% of the face should be clearly visible, with a white background.
  • Spectacles are allowed if being used regularly.
  • Polaroid and Computer-generated photos are not acceptable.
  • Applications not complying with these instructions or with unclear photographs are liable to be rejected.
  • Candidates may please note that if it is found that photograph uploaded is fabricated i.e. de-shaped or seems to be hand-made or computer made, the form of the candidate will be rejected and the same would be considered as using unfairmeans and the candidate would be dealt with accordingly.
  • Application without photograph shall be rejected. The photograph need not be attested.
  • Candidates are advised to take 6 to 8 passport size coloured photographs with white background.
  • Passport size photograph is to be used for uploading on Online Application Form and also for pasting on Attendance Sheet at the examination centre.
  • The candidate should scan his/her passport size photograph for uploading. File size must be between 10 kb to 200 kb.

(ii) Candidate’s Signature

The candidates are required to upload their full signature in running handwriting in the appropriate box given in the Online Application Form. Writing full name in the Box in Capital letters would not be accepted as signature and the Application Form will be rejected. Further, unsigned Online Application Forms will also be rejected.

  • The candidate should put his full signature on white paper with Black Ink pen and scan for uploading.
  • File size must be between 4 kb to 30 kb.

Note: Candidate must ensure that the uploaded images are clear and proper.

(iii) Candidate’s Thumb Impression

  • The candidates are required to upload their Thumb Impression in the appropriate box given in the Online Application Form.
  • Males have to use Left Thumb Impression and Females have to use Right Thumb Impression
  • File size must be between 3 kb to 30 kb.

Step IV: Payment of Fee and Status of receipt of Online Application Form with Fee:

The final Confirmation of payment of Fee and the receipt of online transaction will be displayed in the Confirmation Page of AIEEA-UG 2020. The candidature of the candidate, whose fees has not been received upto the prescribed last date (31 March 2020), will not be considered for the examination. In case the candidate has paid the fee but is still not able to download the Confirmation Page, the candidate should approach the Help Line between 10.00 am to 5.00 pm from 09 May 2020 to 15 May 2020 with the following documents for correction and considering his/her candidature for the examination.

(i) Proof of fee paid (Photocopy of transaction slip of fees paid through Debit/Credit Card and Net Banking/Paytm). In case, the fee has not been remitted within the prescribed last date, the application would be treated as incomplete/unsuccessful and it shall not be considered.

(ii) The fee difference on account of change of category by the candidate during correction of particulars in online application form shall have to be paid mandatorily by the candidate.

(iii) No request regarding non-receipt of Online Application Form/Fee would be entertained by the NTA after 16May 2020.

(iv) Candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA website regularly for latest updates. Candidates should check their mailbox for the given email IDs and SMS in their registered Mobile Number for latest updates and information.

(b) Check List for filling the Online Application Form:

The candidates are advised to ensure the following points before filling the Online Application Form:

(i) Whether they fulfill the eligibility conditions for the Test as prescribed under the heading ‘General Eligibility Criteria’ and ‘Age Limit’.

(ii) That they have filled their category viz General/OBC (Non-Creamy Layer)/SC/ST/EWS/PwD/ Transgender, in the relevant column correctly.

(iii) That they have selected their domicile state code (Annexure-II) carefully.

(iv) That the Person with Disability (PwD) candidate has selected the relevant column in the Online Application Form.

(v) Whether they have downloaded and kept a Printout of Application Form (Confirmation Page) for their own record and future usage.

Provision of Aadhaar:

The Aadhaar number is only one of the types of identification and is not mandatory. Candidates may also enter Passport number, Ration Card number, Bank Account number or any other valid Government identity number.

4. 2 Replica of Application Form

The replica of the ICAR-AIEEA (UG)-2020 Application Format is available at (Annexure-IX)

Steps to complete the Application Process

Application Form may be submitted in four  Download, save and print copies of Confirmation Page after successful remittance of fee and keep copies safely for future reference.  All the 4 Steps can be done together or at separate times simple steps:

Step 1 Apply for Online Registration using unique Email Id and Mobile No.
Step 2 Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated Application No.
Step 3 Upload scanned images of Candidate’s Photograph (file size: 10 kb – 200 kb), Candidate’s Signature (file size: 4kb – 30kb) and Thumb Impression (file size: 3kb – 30 kb) in JPG/JPEG format.
Step 4 Pay fee using SBI/Syndicate/HDFC Payment Gateway through Debit Card/CreditCard/Net- Banking/UPI and keep proof of fee paid. In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of fee then the transaction is cancelled, and amount will be refunded to the candidate’s account. However, the candidate has to make another transaction, in case the Confirmation Page is not generated.
  • Download, save and print copies of Confirmation Page after successful remittance of fee and keep copies safely for future reference.
  • All the 4 Steps can be done together or at separate times

Note:

1. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step-3 and step-4 are not complete. Such forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be entertained.

2. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA under any circumstances.

3. The entire application process of ICAR-AIEEA (UG)-2020 is online, including uploading of scanned images, Payment of Fees, and Printing of Confirmation Page. Therefore, candidates are not required to send/submit any document(s) including Confirmation Page to NTA/ICAR through Post/ Fax/ E-mails /by Hand.

4.5 Payment of Fee

Application Fee Payable by the Candidates of Various Categories:

  • General/Unreserved, OBC-NCL* & UPS**/EWS*** – Rs.750 /-
  • SC, ST, PwD and Transgender – Rs.375/-
  • Applicable Service/Processing charges & GST are to be paid by the candidate.

**Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in. Only the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General/Unreserved.

***As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Section (EWS) for admission in Central Educational Institutions

4.6 Method of Fee Payment

After completing Step 3 of online Application Form, candidates may remit the examination fee (Step 4) by choosing the following options:

1. Through Debit/Credit card – Candidates need to check the validity of the Debit/Credit Card, while logging on to website for submitting Application Form. Candidate should enter the information asked for and make the required payment through Debit/Credit Card.

2. Through Net Banking – Check the balance in account and keep all credentials ready while logging on to website for submitting Application Form. Candidate should Login with his/her credentials of net banking and make payment through Net Banking.

3. Through UPI

Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’ the candidates are advised as following:

  • If the fee is paid through credit/debit card and status is not OK, it means the transaction is cancelled. Therefore, such candidates have to pay the fee once again and ensure the OK fee status.
  • For cancelled transactions, the amount will, automatically, be refunded to concerned credit/debit card within 15 days of last date of submission of Application Form.

Generation of Confirmation Page confirms the final submission of Application Form. If Confirmation Page has not been generated, this means that Application Form has not been submitted successfully.

4.7 Admit Card for ICAR AIEEA (UG) 2020

  • The Admit Card is issued provisionally to the candidates, subject to their satisfying the eligibility conditions.
  • The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website w.e.f. 08 May 2020 onwards and appear for the Examination at the given Centre on Date and Shift (Timing) as indicated in their Admit Card.
  • No candidate will be allowed to appear at the examination centre, on Date and Timings other than that allotted to them in their Admit card.
  • The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully and follow them during the conduct of the examination.

The admit card will be uploaded on NTA website www.nta.ac.in, https://icar.nta.nic.in. Please check the admit card carefully for your Roll No. Name, Subject Group, Date of Birth, Gender, Examination Centre Name, City, and Category, etc. In case of any problem related to Admit card, please contact the given helpline numbers between 10:00 A.M. to 5:00 P.M. between 10 and 25 May 2020.

In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or his/her photograph and signatures shown in the Admit Card and Confirmation Page, the candidate may immediately approach the Help Line between 10:00 am to 5:00 pm between 10 May 2020 to 25 May 2020. In such cases, candidates would appear in the examination with the already downloaded Admit Card. However, NTA will take necessary action to make correction in the record later.

Note :

a. Candidate may please note that Admit Cards will not be sent by post.

b. In no case, the duplicate Admit Card for ICAR AIEEA (UG) 2020 would be issued at the Examination Centres.

c. Candidate must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made therein.

d. Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Cards in good condition for future reference and verification during Counseling.

e. No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose Applications are found to be incomplete for any reasons (including indistinct / doubtful photographs / unsigned Applications)

f. Issue of Admit Cards, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility which shall be further scrutinized at subsequent stages of admission process.

LIST OF EXAMINATION CITY CENTRES

STATE/UTsCITYCITY CODE
ANDAMAN AND NICOBARPORT BLAIRAN01
ANDHRA PRADESHANANTAPURAP01
ANDHRA PRADESHCHIRALAAP04
ANDHRA PRADESHCHITTOORAP05
ANDHRA PRADESHGUNTURAP07
ANDHRA PRADESHKAKINADAAP09
ANDHRA PRADESHKURNOOLAP10
ANDHRA PRADESHNELLOREAP11
ANDHRA PRADESHRAJAHMUNDRYAP13
ANDHRA PRADESHTIRUPATHIAP16
ANDHRA PRADESHVIJAYAWADAAP17
ANDHRA PRADESHVISAKHAPATNAMAP18
ANDHRA PRADESHVIZIANAGARAMAP19
ARUNACHAL PRADESHITANAGAR/NAHARL AGUNAL01
ASSAMDIBRUGARHAM01
ASSAMGUWAHATIAM02
ASSAMJORHATAM03
ASSAMSILCHAR (ASSAM)AM04
ASSAMTEZPURAM05
BIHARARRAHBR09
BIHARBHAGALPURBR02
BIHARDARBHANGABR04
BIHARGAYABR05
BIHARMUZAFFARPURBR06
BIHARPATNABR07
BIHARPURNEABR08
CHANDIGARHCHANDIGARH/MOHALICH01
CHHATTISGARHBHILAI NAGAR/DURGCG01
CHHATTISGARHBILASPUR (CHHATTISGARH)CG02
CHHATTISGARHRAIPURCG03
DELHIDELHI/NEW DELHIDL01
GOAPANAJI/MADGAONGO01
GUJARATAHMEDABAD/GAND HINAGARGJ01
GUJARATANANDGJ02
GUJARATMEHSANAGJ08
GUJARATRAJKOTGJ10
GUJARATSURATGJ11
GUJARATVADODARAGJ12
HARYANAAMBALAHR01
HARYANAFARIDABADHR03
HARYANAGURUGRAMHR04
HARYANAHISSARHR05
HARYANAKARNALHR06
HARYANAKURUKSHETRAHR07
HARYANAPANIPATHR08
HARYANASONIPATHR09
HARYANAYAMUNA NAGARHR10
HIMACHAL PRADESHHAMIRPUR (HIMACHALPRADESH)HP03
HIMACHAL PRADESHKANGRA / PALAMPURHP04
HIMACHAL PRADESHMANDIHP08
HIMACHAL PRADESHSHIMLAHP06
HIMACHAL PRADESHSOLANHP07
HIMACHAL PRADESHUNAHP09
JAMMU AND KASHMIRJAMMUJK02
JAMMU AND KASHMIRSAMBAJK03
JAMMU AND KASHMIRSRINAGAR (J & K)JK04
JHARKHANDBOKARO STEEL CITYJH01
JHARKHANDDHANBADJH02
JHARKHANDHAZARIBAGHJH05
JHARKHANDJAMSHEDPURJH03
JHARKHANDRANCHIJH04
KARNATAKABELAGAVI(BELGAUM)KK02
KARNATAKABELLARYKK03
KARNATAKABENGALURUKK04
KARNATAKABIDARKK05
KARNATAKADAVANAGEREKK06
KARNATAKADHARWAD /HUBBALLI(HUBLI)KK10
KARNATAKAGULBARGAKK08
KARNATAKAHASSANKK09
KARNATAKAMANDYAKK18
KARNATAKAMANGALURU(MANGALORE)KK12
KARNATAKAMYSURU(MYSORE)KK14
KARNATAKASHIVAMOGA(SHIMOGA)KK15
KARNATAKATUMAKURUKK16
KARNATAKAUDUPI/MANIPALKK17
KERALAALAPPUZHA /CHENGANNURKL01
KERALAERNAKULAM/ ANGAMALY/MOOVATTUPUZHAKL04
KERALAIDUKKIKL05
KERALAKANNURKL07
KERALAKASARAGODKL08
KERALAKOLLAMKL09
KERALAKOTTAYAMKL11
KERALAKOZHIKODEKL12
KERALAMALAPPURAMKL13
KERALAPALAKKADKL15
KERALAPATHANAMTHITTAKL16
KERALATHIRUVANANTHAPU RAMKL17
KERALATHRISSURKL18
LADHAKLEHLL01
MADHYA PRADESHBHOPALMP03
MADHYA PRADESHGWALIORMP06
MADHYA PRADESHINDOREMP07
MADHYA PRADESHJABALPURMP08
MADHYA PRADESHSAGARMP12
MADHYA PRADESHSATNAMP13
MADHYA PRADESHUJJAINMP15
MAHARASHTRAAMRAVATIMR03
MAHARASHTRAAURANGABAD(MAHARASHTRA)MR04
MAHARASHTRAJALGAONMR13
MAHARASHTRAKOLHAPURMR14
MAHARASHTRAMUMBAI/
NAVI MUMBAI
MR16
MAHARASHTRANAGPURMR17
MAHARASHTRANANDEDMR18
MAHARASHTRANASHIKMR19
MAHARASHTRAPUNEMR22
MANIPURIMPHALMN01
MEGHALAYASHILLONGMG01
MIZORAMAIZAWLMZ01
NAGALANDDIMAPURNL01
NAGALANDKOHIMANL02
ODISHABALASOREOR02
ODISHABERHAMPUR-GANJAMOR03
ODISHABHUBANESWAROR04
ODISHACUTTACKOR05
ODISHADHENKANALOR06
ODISHAROURKELAOR08
ODISHASAMBALPUROR09
PUDUCHERRYPUDUCHERRYPO01
PUNJABAMRITSARPB01
PUNJABBHATINDAPB02
PUNJABJALANDHARPB04
PUNJABLUDHIANAPB05
PUNJABPATIALA /FATEHGARH SAHIBPB08
RAJASTHANAJMERRJ01
RAJASTHANALWARRJ02
RAJASTHANBIKANERRJ05
RAJASTHANJAIPURRJ06
RAJASTHANJODHPURRJ07
RAJASTHANKOTARJ08
RAJASTHANSIKARRJ09
RAJASTHANSRIGANGANAGARRJ10
RAJASTHANUDAIPURRJ11
SIKKIMGANGTOKSM01
TAMIL NADUCHENNAITN01
TAMIL NADUCOIMBATORETN02
TAMIL NADUCUDDALORETN03
TAMIL NADUKANCHIPURAMTN05
TAMIL NADUKANYAKUMARI /NAGERCOILTN06
TAMIL NADUMADURAITN08
TAMIL NADUNAMAKKALTN10
TAMIL NADUSALEMTN11
TAMIL NADUTHANJAVURTN12
TAMIL NADUTHOOTHUKUDITN13
TAMIL NADUTIRUCHIRAPPALLITN14
TAMIL NADUTIRUNELVELITN15
TAMIL NADUTIRUVALLURTN16
TAMIL NADUVELLORETN18
TAMIL NADUVIRUDHUNAGARTN20
TELANGANAHYDERABAD/ SECUNDERABAD/RANGA REDDYTL01
TELANGANAKARIMNAGARTL02
TELANGANAKHAMMAMTL03
TELANGANAWARANGALTL07
TRIPURAAGARTALATA01
UTTAR PRADESHAGRAUP01
UTTAR PRADESHALIGARHUP02
UTTAR PRADESHALLAHABADUP03
UTTAR PRADESHBAREILLYUP04
UTTAR PRADESHGHAZIABADUP07
UTTAR PRADESHGORAKHPURUP08
UTTAR PRADESHJHANSIUP10
UTTAR PRADESHKANPURUP11
UTTAR PRADESHLUCKNOWUP12
UTTAR PRADESHMEERUTUP14
UTTAR PRADESHMORADABADUP15
UTTAR PRADESHMUZAFFARNAGARUP16
UTTAR PRADESHNOIDA /GREATER NOIDAUP09
UTTAR PRADESHVARANASIUP18
UTTARAKHANDDEHRADUNUK01
UTTARAKHANDHALDWANIUK02
UTTARAKHANDROORKEEUK06
WEST BENGALASANSOLWB01
WEST BENGALBURDWAN(BARDHAMAN)WB02
WEST BENGALDURGAPURWB04
WEST BENGALHOOGHLYWB06
WEST BENGALHOWRAHWB07
WEST BENGALKALYANIWB08
WEST BENGALKOLKATAWB10
WEST BENGALSILIGURIWB11

Note:

1. The exact name/location of Examination venue in the Examination city centre will be notified later along with the Roll Number in accordance with the Application Number and Date of Birth and shall be available on NTA website www.nta.ac.in, ntaicar.nic.in.

2. NTA may change/shift the examination city center opted by the candidate to another nearby centre, if number of candidates are more at any city center.

DOMICILE STATE/UTs CODES

Sl.No.Name of the State/UTCode Number
1Andaman & Nicobar Islands1
2Andhra Pradesh2
3Arunachal Pradesh3
4Assam4
5Bihar5
6Chandigarh6
7Chhattisgarh7
8Dadra & Nagar Haveli & Daman & Diu8
9Delhi10
10Goa11
11Gujarat12
12Haryana13
13Himachal Pradesh14
14Jammu & Kashmir15
15Jharkhand16
16Karnataka17
17Kerala18
18Lakshadweep19
19Madhya Pradesh20
20Maharashtra21
21Manipur22
22Meghalaya23
23Mizoram24
24Nagaland25
25Odisha26
26Puducherry27
27Punjab28
28Rajasthan29
29Sikkim30
30Tamil Nadu31
31Tripura32
32Uttarakhand33
33Uttar Pradesh34
34West Bengal35
35Telangana36
36Ladakh (U.T)37

Degree Programmes for Admission in AIEEA (UG) 2020

Subject Code No. Degree Programme for Admission
01 B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture
02 B.Sc. (Hons.) Horticulture
03 B.F.Sc.
04 B.Sc. (Hons.) Forestry
05 B.Sc. (Hons.) Community Science
06 Food Nutrition and Dietetics*
07 B.Sc. (Hons.) Sericulture
08 B. Tech. Agricultural Engineering
09 B. Tech. Dairy Technology
10 B. Tech. Food Technology
11 B. Tech. Bio- Technology
  • Subject to accreditation by National Agricultural Education Accreditation Board.

Eligibility Qualifications at 10+2 Examination for Degree Programmes

Code No Degree Programme for Admission Subjects which the candidate must have passed in 10+2 Examination Subjects to be attempted in the Entrance Examination
01 B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture PCB/PCMB/ PCM/Inter-Agriculture PCB/PCM/PCA/ABC
02 B.Sc. (Hons.) Horticulture PCB/PCMB/PCM/Inter-Agriculture PCB/PCM/PCA/ABC
03 B.F.Sc. PCB/PCMB/ Inter-Agriculture PCB/PCA/ABC
04 B.Sc. (Hons.) Forestry PCB/PCMB/ Inter-Agriculture PCB/PCA/ABC
05 B.Sc. (Hons.) Community Science PCB/ PCMB/ PCM PCB/PCM
06 Food Nutrition and Dietetics* PCB/ PCMB/ PCM PCB/PCM
07 B.Sc. (Hons.) Sericulture PCB/ PCMB/ PCM PCB/PCM
08 B. Tech. Agricultural Engineering PCM/ PCMB PCM
09 B. Tech. Dairy Technology PCM/PCMB PCM
10 B. Tech. Food Technology PCM/PCMB PCM
11 B. Tech. Bio- Technology PCM/PCMB/PCB PCM/PCB
  • Subject to accreditation by National Agricultural Education Accreditation Board.

P= PHYSICS
C= CHEMISTRY
B= BIOLOGY
M= MATHEMATICS
A= AGRICULTURE

Note: As per the V Deans Committee Report, Agril. Marketing & Co-operation subject has been dropped for Admission to UG degree program through ICAR- AIEEA-UG w.e.f. the Academic Session 2017-18.

Candidates must ensure that they

1. Fullfill eligibility criteria of choosing the subject combination.

2.. Attemp same combination in the test which they have selected in Application form

TS LAWCET-2020

A Common Entrance Test, designated as Telangana State Law Common Entrance Test-2020 (TS LAWCET-2020) and Telangana State PG Law Common Entrance Test – 2020 (TS PGLCET-2020) will be conducted by the CONVENER, TS LAWCET/ TS PGLCET-2020, Osmania University, Hyderabad on behalf of the Telangana State Council of Higher Education for admission into 3Year / 5Year LL.B. Regular Courses and 2 year LL.M. Courses in the Colleges of Law in Telangana for the academic year 2020-2021

TS LAWCET & TS PGLCET -2020 IMPORTANT DATES

Sl.
No.
ACTIVITYDATE
1.Notification of TS LAWCET-202002-03-2020
2.Commencement of Submission & Registration of Online Application Form with registration fee of Rs.800/- (Rs.500/- for SC/ST & PH)06-03-2020
3.Last Date for Submission & Registration of Online Application Form
without Late Fee
06-04-2020
4.Last Date for Submission & Registration of Online Application Form with Late Fee of Rs.500/-20-04-2020
5.Last Date for Submission & Registration of Online Application Form with Late Fee of Rs.1000/-30-04-2020
6.Last Date for Submission & Registration of Online Application Form with Late Fee of Rs.2000/-10-05-2020
7.Last Date for Submission & Registration of Online Application Form with Late Fee of Rs.4000/-20-05-2020
8.Correction of online application data already submitted by the candidate11-05-2020
to
16-05-2020
9.Commencement of Downloading of Hall Tickets21-05-2020
10.Date and Time of TS LAWCET-2020 Examination
11.00 am to 12.30 pm
27-05-2020
11.Announcement of Preliminary Key31-05-2020
12.Last Date of Submission of Objections on Preliminary Key02-06-2020 @ 5PM
13.Announcement of Final Key and Test Entrance Results (Tentative)10-06-2020

TS Law Common Entrance Test (TS LAWCET- 2020) for admission into 3 / 5 years law courses (LL.B.) and TS PG Law Common Entrance Test (TSPGLCET-2020) for admission into LL.M courses offered by State Universities in Telangana State including their affiliated colleges for the academic year 2020-21 will be conducted by Osmania University, Hyderabad, Telangana State.

ELIGIBILITY FOR TS LAWCET-2020

EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS

3 years LL.B. Course:

For 3-year LL. B Course, the Candidates should have passed any Graduate Degree (with 10+2+3 pattern) of a recognized University with 45% of aggregate marks for general category, 42% for OBC Category* and 40% for SC/ST or any other examination recognized as equivalent by the Universities concerned and also as per Bar Council of India, Legal Education Rule – 2008 and BCI – Legal Education Committee meeting dated 30th April 2017 (For Clarification visit http://www.barcouncilofindia.org/), if any candidate secured less than 45%,42% and 40% respectively in graduation he should have secured same percentage or more on the aggregate in any additional Graduation or Post Graduation. The candidates who have passed Degree examination by single sitting without undergoing three years course either through regular or private or correspondence and those who obtained the degree through open University directly without having any basic qualification are not eligible as per G.O. Ms No. 31 dated:18-03-2009.

Note:

i) There is a relaxation of 5% of marks in the above qualifying examinations for 3 year Law course in favour of the Candidates belonging to SC/ST Category.

ii) The percentage of 44.5% and above in aggregate in graduation (with 10+2+3 Pattern) in case of candidates belongs to general categories, 41.5% or above in aggregate in graduation (with 10+2+3 Pattern) in case of candidates belongs to OBC category and 39.5% and above in aggregate in graduation (with 10+2+3 Pattern) in case of candidates belongs to SC/ST category will be considered as 45%, 42% and 40% of aggregate marks respectively for admission into LL.B. 3-year course.

iii) The Eligibility criteria are subject to change as per the Government Orders issued from time to time

5 year LL.B. Course:

For 5 year LL.B. Course, the Candidates should have passed two year Intermediate Examination (with 10+2 pattern) with 45% of aggregate marks for general category, 42% for OBC Category* and 40% for SC/ST or any other examination recognized as equivalent by the University concerned or the Board of Intermediate Education, T.S., and also as per Bar Council of India, Legal Education Rule – 2008 (For Clarification of BCI – Legal Education Committee meeting dated 30th April 2017, visit http://www.barcouncilofindia.org/).

Note:

i) There is a relaxation of 5% of marks in the above qualifying examinations for 5 year Law course in favour of the Candidates belonging to SC/ST Category.

ii) The percentage of 44.5% and above in aggregate in Intermediate (with 10+2 Pattern) in case of candidates belongs to general categories, 41.5% or above in aggregate in Intermediate (with 10+2 Pattern) in case of candidates belongs to OBC category and 39.5% and above in aggregate in Intermediate (with 10+2 Pattern) in case of candidates belongs to SC/ST category will be considered as 45%, 42% and 40% respectively for admission into LL. B 5-year course.

iii) The Eligibility criteria are subject to change as per the Government Orders issued from time to time.

Qualifying Marks for TS LAWCET-2020

The qualifying percentage of marks in the Entrance Test is 35% (i.e. 42 marks out of total 120 marks).

For candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes, no minimum qualifying percentage of marks is prescribed.

AGE LIMIT

No Age restriction for the candidates seeking admission into LL. B. Courses, as per the Bar Council of India Lr. No. BCI/D/2337/2018(LE/Cir.4) dated 26.11.2018. The detailed information is available in the official website i.e., http://www.barcouncilofindia.org/

RANKING

The candidates will be ranked in the order of merit based on the marks obtained in the TS LAWCET-2020. In case of tie, the relative rank will be decided as mentioned below:

(i) By considering the marks secured in Part-C of TS LAWCET and if the tie still persists marks obtained in Part-B in TS LAWCET shall be taken into consideration.

(ii) If the tie still persists they may be bracketed together for the purpose of ranking and seniority in age may be considered at the time of admission.

(iii) Rank obtained in TS LAWCET-2020 is valid for admission into 3 year/ 5 year Law Course, as the case may be, for the academic year 2020-2021 only.

SUBMISSION OF ONLINE APPLICATIONS

In terms of orders issued by the Government of Telangana State and the proceedings by Telangana State Council of Higher Education, Hyderabad, ONLINE APPLICATIONS are invited for appearance at the TS Law Common Entrance Test for admission into 1st year LLB (3YDC & 5YDC) and LL.M Course for the academic year 2020-2021.

Online Application Fee

  • For TS LAWCET – 2020 : Rs.800/- (Rs.500/- in case of SC/ST & PH Candidates)
  • For TS PGLCET – 2020 : Rs.1000/- (Rs.800/- in case of SC/ST & PH Candidates)

IMPORTANT DATES FOR ONLINE SUBMISSION

1. Date of Commencement of Submission of Online Applications : 06-03-2020

2. Last dates for Submission of Online Applications

a) Without Late Fee : 06-04-2020

b) With a Late fee of Rs.500/- : 20-04-2020

c) With a Late fee of Rs.1,000/- : 30-04-2020

d) With a Late fee of Rs.2,000/- : 10-05-2020

e) With a Late fee of 4,000/- : 20-05-2020

DATE AND TIME OF TS LAWCET & PGLCET-2020

  • TS LAWCET (LLB 3/5 YDC) : 27-05-2020 (Wednesday) 11.00 am to 12.30 pm
  • TS PGLCET (LL.M) : 27-05-2020 (Wednesday) 11.00 am to 12.30 pm

MEDIUM OF TEST

  • English/Telugu and English/Urdu for TS LAWCET-2020
  • English for TS PGLCET- 2020

REGIONAL TEST CENTERS

The TS LAWCET & PGLCET – 2020 test will be held at the following 18 Regional Online Test Centres in Telangana State and Andhra Pradesh. Convener reserves the right to add or delete any centre from the list and allot accordingly:

S.No.Telangana
1.Hyderabad West ( Kukatpally, Patancheru, Gandipet, Moinabad and surrounding areas)
2.Hyderabad North (Medchal,Gandimaisamma and surrounding areas)
3.Hyderabad Central (Abids, Tarnaka and surrounding areas)
4.Hyderabad East (Ghatkesar, Keesara and surrounding areas)
5.Hyderabad South-East (L.B. Nagar, Hayathnagar, Pedda Amberpet, Ibrahimpatnam,
Ramoji Film City area and surrounding areas)
6.Karimnagar
7.Khammam
8.Kodad
9.Nalgonda
10.Mahabubnagar
11.Warangal
12.Nizamabad
13.Adilabad
14.Siddipet(Medak)
 Andhra Pradesh
1.Tirupati
2.Vijayawada
3.Visakhapatnam
4.Kurnool

LAWCET Syllabus

SYLLABUS FOR TS LAWCET-2020 FOR LL.B 3.YDC/5YDC

The Test is designed to evaluate the candidate’s ability and aptitude to pursue the study of Law. The Test consists of three parts. Total number of questions will be 120 and the duration of test is 90 minutes. Maximum marks are 120.

Part – A : Consists of 30 questions carrying 30 marks: General Knowledge and Mental Ability.

Part – B : Consists of 30 questions carrying 30 marks: Current Affairs.

Part – C : Consists of 60 questions carrying 60 marks: Aptitude for the Study of Law.

  • For 5-year Law Course, the standard expected is of Intermediate level and for 3-year Law Course, the standard expected is of Degree Level.
  • The questions in Part-C, Aptitude for the study of Law, elementary knowledge of the basic principles of Law and Constitution of India, on the Part of the Student is assumed.
  • The Questions will be objective type including multiple choices questions, matching items.
  • Each question contains four alternative answers numbered as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Candidates have to exercise their choice in answering the question.

AP EAMCET-2020 DETAILED NOTIFICATION

Engineering, Agriculture and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAMCET) is conducted by Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Kakinada on behalf of APSCHE. This examination is the prerequisite for admission into various professional courses offered in University/ Private Colleges in the state of Andhra Pradesh.

Important Dates :

ActivityDate & Time
Notification of AP EAMCET – 202027.02.2020
Commencement of Submission of Online application forms29.02.2020
Last date for submission of online applications without late fee29.03.2020
Last date for submission of online applications with late fee of Rs. 500/-05.04.2020
Correction of online application data already submitted by the candidate06.04.2020 to 09.04.2020
Last date for submission of online applications with late fee of Rs. 1000/-10.04.2020
Last date for receipt of online applications with late fee of Rs. 5000/-15.04.2020
Downloading of Hall-tickets from the website https://sche.ap.gov.in/eamcet16.04.2020 (onwards)
Last date for receipt of applications with late fee of Rs. 10000/-19.04.2020
Date of AP EAMCET Examination (Engineering)20.04.2020, 21.04.2020, 22.04.2020 & 23.04.2020
Time of Engineering Examination10.00 AM to 1.00 PM & 02.30 PM to 05.30 PM
Date of AP EAMCET Examination (Agriculture)23.04.2020 & 24.04.2020
Time of Agriculture Examination10.00 AM to 1.00 PM & 02.30 PM to 05.30 PM
Date of AP EAMCET Examination (Both Streams)22.04.2020 & 23.04.2020
Time of Examination (Both Streams)10.00 AM to 1.00 PM & 02.30 PM to 05.30 PM
Declaration of Preliminary Key (Engineering)24.04.2020
Declaration of Preliminary Key (Agriculture)25.04.2020
Last Date for receiving of objections on Preliminary Key28.04.2020 (5.00 PM)
Declaration of Results05.05.2020

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1) The Candidates who wish to apply for APEAMCET-2020 are requested to fill the particulars carefully in the ONLINE APPLICATION FORM. The required information should be collected from the relevant documents.

2) The Candidates are requested to check the filled in particulars before pressing SUBMIT button during online application process.

3) After submission of ONLINE APPLICATION FORM, if any corrections are to be incorporated, candidate has to see the corrections link in Homepage of https://sche.ap.gov.in/eamcet

4) To fill the required details in ONLINE APPLICATION FORM, the following documents may be referred:

S.NoDetails Required Documents to be referred
1AP Online/ TS Online Transaction Id. (if payment is being made through AP Online/ TS Online)Receipt form from AP Online / TS Online
2Qualifying Examination appeared or passed, Hall ticket Number of Qualifying ExaminationMarks Memo / Hall Ticket of Intermediate (10+2) / Equivalent
3Stream Applied for (E), (AM), or both (E & AM)Eligibility Criteria in the APEAMCET-2020 website
4Date of Birth, Birth District, Birth StateBirth Certificate / SSC or Equivalent Certificate
5Hall Ticket Number of SSC or Equivalent examination CertificateSSC or Equivalent Certificate
6Local Status (OU/AU/SVU/ Nonlocal)The local candidate certificate issued by MRO or Competent Authority
7Income of Parents (Income upto Rs.1.00 Lakh (or) up to Rs.2.00 Lakhs (or) more than Rs. 2.0 lakhsThe Income certificate issued by Competent Authority
8STUDY DETAILSStudy certificates from Class I to Intermediate (10+2) / Equivalent
9Category (SC, ST, BC, etc.) and Application number of the Caste CertificateThe latest Caste Certificate issued by Competent Authority
10Special Category (NCC, PH, Sports, CAP, etc.)The Certificate Issued by Competent Authority
11Aadhaar Card detailsAadhaar Card
12Ration Card detailsRation Card
13Economically Weaker Sections Certificate detailsEWS Certificate

5) Other Information required for filling Online Application

a) Recent passport size digital color photograph (file size less than 30 KB and “.jpg” file format) of candidate for uploading (whose photograph is not available in Intermediate databases)
b) Digital Signature of the candidate (file size less than 15 KB and “.jpg” file format) of candidate or uploading (whose Signature is not available in Intermediate databases.)
c) Regional Center to which candidate wishes to appear for AP EAMCET-2020 examination.
d) Gender (Male / Female/Transgender.)
e) Non-Minority / Minority
f) Mobile Number of the candidate.
g) E-mail of the candidate.
h) Place of Education – Municipality / Corporation or Rural area in SSC and Intermediate.

6) It is advised to visit your allotted Examination Center well before so that you can take examination tension – free.

7) The candidate will not be allowed to take the examination even if late by 1minute.

8) The candidate does not have option of choosing specific date / session to appear for the AP EAMCET-2020 entrance examination. This information is known to him / her only after downloading Hall Ticket. For any reason if the candidate fails to appear in the given slot, he / she is treated as absent.

9) The candidate has to submit the “FILLED IN ONLINE APPLICATION FORM” to the invigilator in the Examination Hall on the day of the APEAMCET-2020 exam. Also, affix a recent color photograph (3.5cms x 3.5cms) in the box provided (Bottom – Left side) on the FILLED IN ONLINE APPLICATION FORM and get it attested by a Gazetted Officer / Principal of the college where studied.

10) The candidate belonging to SC / ST category has to submit the attested “CASTE CERTIFICATE” along with the FILLED IN ONLINE APPLICATION FORM” to the Invigilator on day of the APEAMCET2020 exam in the Examination Hall, in case, the Application number of his/her Caste Certificate is not provided at the time of the Online submission of the Application.

* NOTE: For items 5(a) and 5(b), please don’t paste Photograph and Signature on another paper and scan. Instead scan the photograph and Signature as separate files.

AP EAMCET – 2020 (ENGINEERING)

A Common Entrance Test designated as “Engineering, Agriculture & Medical Common Entrance Test” (AP EAMCET – 2020) will be conducted by JNT University Kakinada, KAKINADA for the academic year 2020-2021 for admission into the First Year of Professional Courses i.e (i) Engineering, Bio-Technology, B.Tech. (Dairy Technology), B.Tech. (Agr. Engg.), B.Tech. (Food Science and Technology), (ii) B.Sc. (Ag)/ B.Sc. (Hort)/ B.V.Sc. & A.H/B.F.Sc & (iii) B. Pharmacy, Pharma. D.

I. PARTICULARS OF AP EAMCET – 2020

  • The Test will be conducted during 20-04-2020 to 23-04-2020 in two sessions every day ie 10.00 A.M. to1.00 P.M. and 2.30 P.M to 5.30 P.M during Online Test mode only.
  • The Entrance test is conducted in online (Computer Based Examination) only for a during of 3 hour and the question paper consists of total 160 questions comprising of 80 questions in Mathematics, 40 questions in Physics and 40 questions inChemistry.
  • All questions are of objective type (multiple choice) only and each question carries one mark. The syllabus in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry is furnished in Annexure-I. The model questions are given in Annexure-II.
  • A sample/mock test will be available on www.sche.ap.gov.in/eamcet website for practice purpose and to give the candidate look and feel of the On- Line (Computer Based)Examination.

II. ELIGIBILITY TO APPEAR FOR AP EAMCET – 2020

Candidates satisfying the following requirements shall be eligible to appear for AP EAMCET-2020:

a. Candidates should be of Indian Nationality or Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) / Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Card Holders.

b. Candidates should belong to the state of Andhra Pradesh / Telangana. The candidates should satisfy Local / Non-Local status requirements as laid down in the Andhra Pradesh / Telangana Educational Institutions (Regulation of Admission) order, 1974 as subsequently amended (See AnnexureIII).

c. For Engineering, B.Pharmacy (M.P.C), Pharma.D, B.Tech. (Dairy), B.Tech. (Agrl. Engineering), B.Tech. [Food Science and Technology (FS & T)], B.Sc. [Agriculture Engg]courses:

(i) Candidates should have passed or appeared for the final year of Intermediate Examination (10+2 pattern) with Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry as optionals or related vocational courses in the fields of Engineering and Technology, conducted by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana, along with bridge course or courses conducted by it for candidates enrolled from academic year 2000 onwards, or any other examination recognized as equivalent thereto by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana.

OR

Candidates should have passed or appeared at the final year of the Diploma examination in Engineering conducted by the State Board of Technical Education and Training, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana or any other examination recognized as equivalent thereto by the State Board of Technical Education and Training, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana.

(ii) a) In the case of Engineering, Pharmacy courses, candidates should have completed 16 years of age as on 31st December of the year of admission (2020). There is no upper age limit. b) In the case of B.Tech. (Dairy Technology), B.Tech. (Agrl. Engineering), B.Tech. (FS & T) and B.Sc. (Agrl. Engg), candidates should have completed 17 years of age as on 31st December of the year of admission (2020) and an upper age limit of 22 years for all the candidates and 25 years in respect of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe candidates as on 31st December of the year of Admissions (2020).

d. (i) For Pharm-D course candidates should have passed or appeared for the final year of Intermediate Examination (10+2 pattern) with Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics as optionals conducted by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana or any other examination recognized by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana, as equivalent thereto or should have passed or appeared at the final year of the Diploma Examination in Pharmacy course conducted by the Andhra Pradesh / Telangana State Board of Technical Education and training.

(ii) Candidate should obtain atleast 45% marks (40% in case of candidate belongs to reserved category) in the subjects specified taken together in the qualifyingexamination.

(iii) The candidates should have completed 17 years of age as on 31st December of the year of admission (2020) to the above course

III. GENERAL INFORMATION / INSTRUCTIONS:

a) The Convener, AP EAMCET – 2020 reserves the right to reject the application of the candidate at anystage, if:

(i) The Online Application Form isincomplete.
(ii) The candidate fails to satisfy the eligibilityconditions.
(iii) Any false or incorrect information isfurnished.
(iv) The Online Application Form is submitted after the duedate.
(v) No correspondence will be entertained in thisregard.
(b) The Convener is not responsible for non-receipt of application by the notified date and time for any reason

IV. MEDIUM OF ENTRANCETEST:

The question paper contains questions in “English” and “Telugu” medium only. Candidates, who have studied the qualifying examination in Urdu medium and wish to avail assistance for translating the questions into Urdu, will be allotted a Test Centre at Kurnool only.

V. REGISTRATION FEE:

Payment of Registration Fee for submission of Online Application Form is the first step and the Registration Fee is Rs. 500/- which has to be paid through the following modes:

a) AP ONLINE / TS ONLINE

b) CREDIT CARD / DEBIT CARD / NET BANKING

VI. SAME CENTRE FOR CANDIDATES APPEARING FOR BOTH ENGINEERING AND AGRICULTURE & MEDICAL:

Candidates of E – Category who are eligible and desirous of taking the test in AM – Category, in addition to the test for E – Category should select the option Both (E & AM Category) together, during the submission of the Online Application Form, so that same Test Centre can be allotted to them for both the tests. If this instruction is not followed, the candidate may be allotted different Test Centres for E & AM category tests and Convener, AP EAMCET2020 is not responsible in allotment of different centres. VII. REGIONAL CENTRES FOR ENTRANCE TEST:

APEAMCET2018_INSTRUCTION_BOOKLET_ENGINEERING

DistrictsRegional Centers    
 12345
AnantapurAnantapurGootyHindupurPutaparthy 
ChittoorChittoorMadanapallePutturTirupati 
East GodavariAmalapuramKakinadaRajahmundry 
GunturGunturNarasaraopeta  
KrishnaGudlavalleruMachilipatnamMylavaramTiruvuruVijayawada
KurnoolKurnoolNandyalYemmiganur 
NelloreGudurKavaliNellore 
PrakasamChimakurthyChiralaMarkapuramOngole 
SrikakulamRajamSrikakulamTekkali 
VisakhapatnamAnakapalleAnandapuramGajuwakaVisakhapatnam City 
VizianagaramBobbiliVizianagaram 
West GodavariBhimavaramEluruNarasapuramTadepalligudem 
YSR KadapaKadapaProddaturRajampeta 
HyderabadLB NagarNacharamSecunderabad 

Note:

1. The Convener reserves the right to add or delete some online Test Centers from the list of Regional Centers notified.

2. The Convener reserves the right to allot the candidates to any online Test Centre other than that opted by the candidates.

3. Candidate has to submit not more than one application either for ‘E’ or ‘AM’ or ‘E&AM’ category test. If any candidate submits more than one application for one category, the Convener reserves the right to reject all the applications or accept any one ofthem only.

VIII. SUBMISSION OF ON-LINE APPLICATION FOR AP EAMCET –2020

Application should be submitted through online mode only

The following information must be kept ready for filling the details during Online submission:

a. Hall ticket Number of Qualifying Examination
b. Hall ticket Number of S.S.C. or equivalent
c. Date of Birth
d. Caste in case of SC/ST/BCcandidates
e. Aadhar Number
f. PH, NCC, Sports etc.
g. Income certificate ( Upto One Lakh or Up to Two Lakhs or More than Two Lakhs Rupees)
h. Ration Card
i. Study or Residence or relevant certificate for proof of local status (last 12years)

Online submission:

For Online submission, visit the website www.sche.ap.gov.in/eamcet. A candidate has to pay Rs.500/- as Registration Fee and late fee (if applicable) by opting any of the following two modes of payment: (a) AP ONLINE / TS ONLINE (b) Debit / Credit Card / Net Banking. After filling the Online Application Form with the required details, the candidate is required to verify all the details carefully and press Submit button. Filled in Online Application Form will be generated which contains Registration Number along with filled in details. The candidate is required to take printout of Filled In Online Application Form and it is to be submitted to the Invigilator during the examination after affixing a recent color photograph duly attested by the Gazetted Officer or Principal of the College where studied qualifying examination. The candidate should use the Registration Number for future correspondence.

IX. Mere appearance and qualifying at AP EAMCET-2020 does not confer any right for admission into professional courses. Candidate has to fulfill the eligibility criteria laid down in the relevant G.O at the time of admission

X. QUALIFYING MARKS FOR AP EAMCET – 2020

The qualifying percentage of marks for the AP EAMCET-2020 is 25% of the maximum marks considered for ranking. However, for candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe, no minimum qualifying mark is prescribed. But their admission will be limited to the extent of seats reserved for such categories (vide G.O.Ms. No. 179, LEN&TE, dated 16.06.1986).

XI. AP EAMCET-2020 RESULTS

1. Evaluation: Every care will be taken to avoid errors in the evaluation, checking, scrutiny, tabulation, normalization and ranking.

2. Ranking:

a. Candidates shall be ranked based on the EAMCET normalized marks (75% weightage) and 10+2 (25% weightage) in the order of merit as explained in the Annexure-IV andAnnexure-V.

b. Rank obtained in AP EAMCET-2020 is valid for admission to the courses mentioned in the application form for the academic year 2020-2021only.

c. Rank card shall be downloaded from the websitewww.sche.ap.gov.in/eamcet

d. Rank obtained with the benefit of relaxation of the minimum qualifying marks at AP EAMCET-2020 by any candidate claiming as SC/ST Category will be cancelled in case the claim is found to be invalid at the time of admission to any course of study in any participating University /Institution.

XII. The candidates should preserve the Filled In Online Application Form, the Hall Ticket and the Rank Card to produce them when called forverification.

XIII. Any malpractice in AP EAMCET-2020 will be dealt with as per rules in force vide G.O.Ms.No: 114, Edn / (IE) Dt: 13th May 1997 for theCET.

XIV. In any litigation concerning AP EAMCET-2020 Test, Convener is the person to sue and be sued. The Convener (Examination), AP EAMCET – 2020 is not responsible for allotment of seats at the time of admissions. The Commissioner of Technical Education, Andhra Pradesh isthe Convener for the Admissions.

XV. Any litigation concerning AP EAMCET-2020 shall be subject to the jurisdiction of the A.P. High Court, Amaravathi only.

XVI. HALL TICKET The candidate should download the Hall Ticket from website http:// www.sche.ap.gov.in/eamcet

XVII. COUNSELLING AND ALLOTMENT OF SEATS

The list of institutions for allotment of candidates with intake in each discipline and category, as per reservations through AP EAMCET – 2020 would be released in the Information Booklet for Counseling in due course and the same information would also be released on website http:// www.sche.ap.gov.in

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Material to be brought on the date of examination

Hall Ticket along with Filled in Online Application Form with duly affixed recent colour photograph attested by Gazetted Officer (or) Principal of the College where candidate has studied the qualifying examination. However, Signature of the candidate and Left Hand Thumb impression in the presence of Invigilator to be captured in the respective places provided in the Filled in Online Application form.

2. Other important instructions

a. Hall ticket issued to the candidate is an important document. Candidates are required to preserve it carefully.

b. Hall ticket is not transferable. Any tampering of Hall Ticket will automatically lead to the disqualification of the candidate

c. Candidate shall arrive at the online examination centre 2 hours before commencement of the examination. This will enable the candidate to familiarize himself/herself with the online examination process.

d. Candidate is not allowed even late by One Minute from the commencement of the onlineexamination.

e. The candidate does not have option of choosing specific date / session to appear for the AP EAMCET2020 entrance examination. This information is known to him / her only after downloading Hall Ticket. For any reason if the candidate fails to appear in the given slot, he / she istreated as absent.

f. Candidates are required to bring the following to the online examination centre: i) Hall Ticket, ii) Filled in Online Application Form, iii) A good Ball Point Pen (for rough work, working sheets will be provided by the Test Centre) and iv) Attested copy of Caste certificate (in case of SC/ST category candidates only).

g. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, Calculators, DocuPen, Slide Rules, Log Tables, Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, printed or written material, bits of papers, mobile phone, pager or any other device, except the Hall Ticket, document as required under point no. 2.(f) inside the Examination Room/Hall. If any candidate is in possession of any of the above items, his/her candidature will be treated as unfair means and his/her current examination will be cancelled & he/she will also be debarred for future examination(s) & the equipment will be seized.

GUIDELINES TO CANDIDATES

1. Please check the Hall ticket carefully for your Name, Date of Birth, Gender, Category, Test Centre Name, Date and Time ofexamination.

2. Candidates are advised to reach the venue at least 2 hours before the examination so as to complete the frisking and registration formalities well before the time. Registration desk will be closed 05 minutes prior to the examination.

3. The candidate must show, on demand, the Hall Ticket for admission in the examination room/hall. A candidate who does not possess the Hall Ticket issued by the Convener, AP EAMCET-2020, shall not be permitted for the examination under any circumstances by the Centre Superintendent.

4. No candidate, under any circumstances, will be allowed to enter the Examination Centre after the commencement of the examination.

5. A seat indicating Hall Ticket number will be allocated to each candidate. Candidate should find out and occupy their allotted seat only. Any candidate found to have changed room or the seat on his/her own other than allotted, his/her candidature shall be cancelled and no plea would be accepted forit.

6. The candidate should ensure that the question paper available on the computer in English and Telugu languages only.

7. No Candidate will be allowed to carry any baggage inside the Examination Centre. The Convener, AP EAMCET-2020 will not be responsible for any belongings stolen or lost at the premises.

8. Smoking and eating is strictly prohibited in the examination room.

9. Tea, coffee, cool drinks or snacks are not allowed to be taken into the examination rooms during examination hours.

10. Approach the Centre Superintendent/Invigilator in the room for any technical assistance, first aid emergency or any other information during the course ofexamination.

11. No candidate, without the special permission of the Centre Superintendent or the Invigilator concerned, will leave his/her seat or Examination Room until the full duration of the Examination. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as instructed by the Centre Superintendent/Invigilators.

12. For any queries or issues regarding computer based examination, the candidates may contact on help line numbers which will be available on www.sche.ap.gov.in/eamcet website lateron

INSTRUCTIONS FOR ON-LINE (COMPUTER BASED) EXAMINATION

The On- Line (Computer Based) Examination will be conducted as per the following schedule.

1. A sample/mock test will be available on www.sche.ap.gov.in/eamcet website for practice purpose and to give the candidate look and feel of the On- Line (Computer Based)Examination.

2. The test will start exactly at the time mentioned in the Hall Ticket and an announcement to this effect will be made by the invigilator.

3. The Entrance test is conducted for a duration of 3 hour and the question paper consists of total 160 questions comprising of 80 questions in Mathematics, 40 questions in Physics and 40 questions in Chemistry. All questions are having equal weightage.

4. There is only one correct response for each question out of four responses given.

5. There is no negative marking and No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for a question.

6. All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the centre and on completion of the test candidates must hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.

7. During the examination time, the invigilator will check Hall ticket of the candidate to satisfy himself/herself about the identity of each candidate.

8. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Convener, EAMCET-2020 with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as perrules.

9. The candidates must sign and give his/her Left Hand Thumb impression on the Attendance Sheet at the appropriate place.

AP EAMCET – 2020 (Agriculture and Medical)

ELIGIBILITY TO APPEAR FOR AP EAMCET –2020

Candidates satisfying the following requirements shall be eligible to appear for AP EAMCET-2020:

1. Candidates should be of Indian Nationality or Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) / Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Card Holders.

2. Candidates should belong to the state of Andhra Pradesh / Telangana. The candidates should satisfy Local/Non-Local status requirements as laid down in the Andhra Pradesh / Telangana Educational Institutions (Regulations of Admission) order, 1974 as subsequently amended (SeeAnnexure-III)

3. For B.V.Sc. & A.H. / B.Sc. (Ag) / B.Sc. (Hort) / B.F.Sc. / B.Tech.(FS&T)courses:

Candidates should have passed or appeared for the final year of intermediate examination (10+2 pattern) or any examination recognized as equivalent there to by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana, with any two / three of the subjects indicated against each course noted below:

With any two of the subjects:

B.Sc.(Ag.)i. Physical Sciences
ii. Biological or Natural Sciences
iii. Agriculture
iv. Vocational Course in Agriculture
B.Sc.(Hort) same as above
B.V.Sc. & A.Hi. Physical sciences
ii. Biological or Natural Sciences
iii. Vocational Courses in Veterinary Sciences
B.F.Sc.i. Physical Sciences
ii. Biological or Natural Sciences
iii. Vocational Courses in Fishery Sciences
B.Tech. (FS & T)i. Mathematics
ii. PhysicalSciences
or
i. Physical Sciences
ii. Biological or Naturalsciences
B.Pharmacy & Pharm-Di. Mathematics
ii. Physical Sciences
or
i. Physical Sciences
ii. Biological or Natural Sciences

Note:

i) Irrespective of the subjects taken at the qualifying examination, candidates seeking admission to the above courses should appear for Biology, Physics and Chemistry in AP EAMCET -2020.(AM Category).

ii) Candidates should have completed 17years of age as on 31st December of the year of admission (2020) and an upper age limit of 22 years for all the candidates and 25 years in respect of SC/ST candidates as on 31st December of the year of admission (2020).

For B. Pharm Course:

i. Candidates should have passed or appeared for the final year of the intermediate examination (10+2 pattern) with Biology, Physics and Chemistry as optionals, conducted by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana as equivalent thereto.

ii. Candidates should have completed 17 years of age by the date of commencement of admission or on such other date as may be notified by the CET committee. There is no upper agelimit

For B.Tech. (Bio-Technology) Course:

Candidates should have passed or appeared for the final year of the intermediate examination (10+2 pattern) with Biology, Physics and Chemistry as optionals, along with the bridge course examination in mathematics conducted by the Board of Intermediate Education, Govt. of Andhra Pradesh / Telangana shall be eligible.

For Pharm-D Course:

i. Candidates should have passed or appeared for the final year of Intermediate Examination (10+2 pattern) with Physics, Chemistry and Biology as optional conducted by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana or any other examination recognized by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana as equivalent thereto or should have passed or appeared at the final year of the diploma examination in pharmacy course conducted by the Andhra Pradesh / Telangana State Board of Technical Education and Training or any other examination recognized as equivalent thereto by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra Pradesh /Telangana.

ii. Candidate should obtain at least 45% marks (40% in case of candidate belongs to reserved category) in the subjects specified taken together in the qualifyingexamination.

iii. The candidates should have completed 17 years of age as on 31st December of the year of admission (2020) to the above course.

N C C PRIORITIES IN RESPECT OF GO.MS.NO:75, HEALTH,MEDICAL AND FAMILY WELFARE(C1) DEPARTMENT, DATED: 08.09.2015.FOR EAMCET ADMISSIONS

SL.
No
BASIC NCC CERTIFI CATECAMP CERTIFICATEPRIORITY AS PER G.O
1CNCC CADETS PARTICIPATING AT INTERNATIONAL LEVEL SELCETED FOR  THE YOUTH EXCHANGE PROGRAMMEP I (a)+ C
2BNCC CADETS PARTICIPATING AT INTERNATIONAL LEVEL SELCETED FOR  THE YOUTH EXCHANGE PROGRAMMEP I (a)+ B
3ANCC CADETS PARTICIPATING AT INTERNATIONAL LEVEL SELCETED FOR  THE YOUTH EXCHANGE PROGRAMMEP I (a)+ A
4CNCC CADETS PARTICIPATING AT INTERNATIONAL LEVEL E VENTS IN SHOOTING/SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING &
KAYAKING/MOOUNTAINEEING/SKYDIVING/PARA JUMPS/PARA SAILING/EQUESTRAIN.
P I (b)+ C
5BNCC CADETS PARTICIPATING AT INTERNATIONAL LEVEL E VENTS IN SHOOTING/SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING &
KAYAKING/MOOUNTAINEEING/SKYDIVING/PARA JUMPS/PARA SAILING/EQUESTRAIN
P I (b)+ B
6ANCC CADETS PARTICIPATING AT INTERNATIONAL LEVEL E VENTS IN SHOOTING/SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING &
KAYAKING/MOOUNTAINEEING/SKYDIVING/PARA JUMPS/PARA SAILING/EQUESTRAIN
P I (b)+ A
7CNCC CANDETS THE WINNERS  OF GALLANTRY/NATIONAL BRAVERY AWARDS/RAKSHA MANTRI PADAKP I (c)+ C
8BNCC CANDETS THE WINNERS  OF GALLANTRY/NATIONAL BRAVERY AWARDS/RAKSHA MANTRI PADAKP I (c)+ B
9ANCC CANDETS THE WINNERS  OF GALLANTRY/NATIONAL BRAVERY AWARDS/RAKSHA MANTRI PADAKP I (c)+ A
10CMEDIAL WINNERS IN REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI IN ANY EVENTP II (a) + GOLD + C
11BMEDIAL WINNERS IN REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI IN ANY EVENTP II (a) + GOLD + B
12AMEDIAL WINNERS IN REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI IN ANY EVENTP II (a) + GOLD + A
13CMEDIAL WINNERS IN REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI IN ANY EVENTP II (a) + SILVER+ C
14BMEDIAL WINNERS IN REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI IN ANY EVENTP II (a) + SILVER + B
15AMEDIAL WINNERS IN REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI IN ANY EVENTP II (a) + SILVER+ A
16CMEDIAL WINNERS IN REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI IN ANY EVENTP II (a) + BRONZE+ C
17BMEDIAL WINNERS IN REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI IN ANY EVENTP II (a) + BRONZE + B
18AMEDIAL WINNERS IN REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI IN ANY EVENTP II (a) + BRONZE+ A
19CNCC CADETS PARTICIPATING AT REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHIP II(b) + C
20BNCC CADETS PARTICIPATING AT REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHIP II(b) + B
21ANCC CADETS PARTICIPATING AT REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHIP II(b) + A
22CMEDAL WINNERS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC FOR REPUBLIC DAY BANNER COMPETITIONP II (c) + GOLD  + C
23BMEDAL WINNERS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC FOR REPUBLIC DAY BANNER COMPETITIONP II (c) + GOLD  + B
24AMEDAL WINNERS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC FOR REPUBLIC DAY BANNER COMPETITIONP II (c) + GOLD + A
25CMEDAL WINNERS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC FOR REPUBLIC DAY BANNER COMPETITIONP II (c) + SILVER  + C
26BMEDAL WINNERS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC FOR REPUBLIC DAY BANNER COMPETITIONP II (c) + SILVER  + B
27AMEDAL WINNERS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC FOR REPUBLIC DAY BANNER COMPETITIONP II (c) + SILVER + A
28CMEDAL WINNERS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC FOR REPUBLIC DAY BANNER COMPETITIONP II (c) + BRONZE  + C
29BMEDAL WINNERS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC FOR REPUBLIC DAY BANNER COMPETITIONP II (c) + BRONZE  + B
30AMEDAL WINNERS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC FOR REPUBLIC DAY BANNER COMPETITIONP II (c) + BRONZE + A
31CPARTICIPANTS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSCP II (d) + C
32BPARTICIPANTS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSCP II (d) + B
33APARTICIPANTS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSCP II (d) + A
34CMEDAL WINNERS IN PARA JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING & KAYAKING/SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAIN CONDCUTED BY THE RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL/NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL LEVEL
P II (e) + GOLD + C
35BMEDAL WINNERS IN PARA JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING & KAYAKING/SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAIN CONDCUTED BY THE RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL/NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL LEVEL
P II (e) + GOLD + B
36AMEDAL WINNERS IN PARA JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING & KAYAKING/SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAIN CONDCUTED BY THE RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL/NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL LEVEL
P II (e) + GOLD + A
37CMEDAL WINNERS IN PARA JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING & KAYAKING/SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAIN CONDCUTED BY THE RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL/NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL LEVEL
P II (e) + SILVER + C
38BMEDAL WINNERS IN PARA JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING & KAYAKING/SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAIN CONDCUTED BY THE RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL/NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL LEVEL
P II (e) + SILVER + B
39AMEDAL WINNERS IN PARA JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING & KAYAKING/SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAIN CONDCUTED BY THE RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL/NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL LEVEL
P II (e) + SILVER + A
40CMEDAL WINNERS IN PARA JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING & KAYAKING/SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAIN CONDCUTED BY THE RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL/NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL LEVEL
P II (e) + BRONZE + C
41BMEDAL WINNERS IN PARA JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING & KAYAKING/SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAIN CONDCUTED BY THE RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL/NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL LEVEL
P II (e) + BRONZE + B
42AMEDAL WINNERS IN PARA JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING & KAYAKING/SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAIN CONDCUTED BY THE RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL/NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL LEVEL
P II (e) + BRONZE + A
43CPARTICIPANTS OF PARA JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING & KAYAKING / SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAINS CONDUCTED BY THE RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL / NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL LEVEL
P II (f) +  C
44BPARTICIPANTS OF PARA JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING & KAYAKING / SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAINS CONDUCTED BY THE RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL / NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL LEVEL
P II (f) +  B
45APARTICIPANTS OF PARA JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING & KAYAKING / SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAINS CONDUCTED BY THE RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL / NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL LEVEL
P II (f) +  A
46CNATIONAL INTERGRATION CAMP AT ANDAMAN & NICOBAR ISLANDS, LEH, NER AND SRINAGARP II (g) + C
47BNATIONAL INTERGRATION CAMP AT ANDAMAN & NICOBAR ISLANDS, LEH, NER AND SRINAGARP II (g) + B
48ANATIONAL INTERGRATION CAMP AT ANDAMAN & NICOBAR ISLANDS, LEH, NER AND SRINAGARP II (g) + A
49CPARTICIPANTS AT REPUBLIC DAY PARADE AT STATE LEVELP III(a) + C
50BPARTICIPANTS AT REPUBLIC DAY PARADE AT STATE LEVELP III(a) + B
51APARTICIPANTS AT REPUBLIC DAY PARADE AT STATE LEVELP III(a) + A
52CPARTICPANTS AT INDEPENDENCE DAY PARADE AT STATE LEVELP III(b) + C
53BPARTICPANTS AT INDEPENDENCE DAY PARADE AT STATE LEVELP III(b) + B
54APARTICPANTS AT INDEPENDENCE DAY PARADE AT STATE LEVELP III(b) + A
55CC – CERTIFICATE HOLDERP III(c) + C
56BB – CERTIFICATE HOLDERP III(c) + B
57AA – CERTIFICATE HOLDERP III(c) + A

N C C PRIORITIES IN RESPECT OF GO.MS.NO:75, HEALTH,MEDICAL AND FAMILY WELFARE(C1) DEPARTMENT, DATED: 08.09.2015.FOR EAMCET ADMISSIONS

NOTE

1)Priority will be Considered for Certificates attained prior to appearing in the qualifying exam.
2)The N.C.C. Directorate, Andhra Pradesh shall be responsible to draw a merit list in respect of N.C.C. cadets  seeking admission under
N.C.C. quota for all the categories.
3)In case of tie, EAMCET merit will be the deciding factor for position in the merit list under N.C.C category.
4)Only N.C.C. Certificates issued by N.C.C. Authorities shall be valid.

CAP PRIORITIES IN RESPECT OF GO.MS.NO.59 HOME (SERVICES.IV) DEPARMTNET DT:16-05-2018 FOR ADMISSIONS INTO PROFESSIONAL COURSES

SL.NOCATEGORYExisting priorityMerit no. priorities
1Widows / Wards of Defence personnel killed in actionI1
2Wards of disabled in action and boarded out from serviceII2
3Widows/Wards of Defence Personnel who died while in service with death attributable to military service.III3
4Wards of disabled in service and boarded out with disability attributable to military serviceIV4
5Wards of Ex-Servicemen and serving personnel who are in receipt of Gallantry Awards :V5
 i) Param Vir ChakraV5
 ii) Ashok ChakraV5
 iii) Sarvottam Yudh Seva MedalV5
 iv) Maha Vir ChakraV5
 v) Kirti ChakraV5
 vi) Uttam Yudh Seva MedalV5
 vii) Vir ChakraV5
 viii) Shaurya ChakraV5
 ix) Yudh Seva MedalV5
 x) Sena, Nau sena, Vayu Sena MedalV5
 xi) Mention-in-Despatches.V5
6Wards of Ex-ServicemenVI6
7Wives of :VII7
 i) Defence personnel disabled in action and boarded out from serviceVII7
 ii) Defence personnel disabled in service and boarded out with disability attributable to military serviceVII7
 iii) Ex-Servicemen and serving personnel who are in receipt of Gallantry AwardsVII7
8Wards of Serving PersonnelVIII8
9Wives of Serving PersonnelIX9

NOTE: CAP category candidates have to produce a certificate issued by Zilla Sainik Welfare Officer (In case of Ex-Service Men), Identity Card and Discharge Book for verification. Candidates whose parents are domicile of A.P. are only eligible to be considered under “CAP” Category.

SPORTS & GAMES PRIORITIES IN RESPECT OF GO.MS.NO.10 DT:15-7-2008 YOUTH ADVANCEMENT, TOURISM & CULTURE (SPORTS) DEPARTMENT

SLNOPaticipation eventExisting priority as per GoMerit order No.
1Gold Medal in Olympic Games (Senior Category) / Individual11
2Gold Medal in Olympic Games (Senior Category) / Team 2
3Silver Medal in Olympic Games (Senior Category ) / Individual23
4Silver Medal in Olympic Games (Senior Category ) / Team 4
5Bronze Medal in Olympic Games (Senior Category ) / Individual35
6Bronze Medal in Olympic Games (Senior Category ) / Team 6
7Gold Medal in World Championship / Cup for Seniors – Grand Slam Tennis. (Senior Category ) / Individual47
8Gold Medal in World Championship / Cup for Seniors – Grand Slam Tennis. (Senior Category ) / Team 8
9Silver Medal in World Championship / Cup for Seniors – world no.2 in Tennis (Senior Category ) / Individual59
10Silver Medal in World Championship / Cup for Seniors – world no.2 in Tennis (Senior Category ) / Team 10
11Bronze Medal in World Championship / Cup for Seniors – world no.3 in Tennis (Senior Category ) / Individual611
12Bronze Medal in World Championship / Cup for Seniors – world no.3 in Tennis (Senior Category ) / Team 12
13Gold Medal in World Universiad / All England Badminton Championship – Davis Cup – Afro – Asian Games (Senior Category) /
Individual
713
14Gold Medal in World Universiad / All England Badminton Championship – Davis Cup – Afro – Asian Games (Senior Category) /
Team
 14
15Silver Medal in World Universiad / All England Championship – Davis Cup – Afro – Asian Games (Senior Category) / Individual815
16Silver Medal in World Universiad / All England Championship – Davis Cup – Afro – Asian Games (Senior Category) / Team 16
17Bronze Medal in World Universiad / All England Championship – Davis Cup – Afro – Asian Games (Senior Category) / Individual917
18Bronze Medal in World Universiad / All England Championship – Davis Cup – Afro – Asian Games (Senior Category) / Team 18
19Participation in Olympic Games – World Championship / Cup – Wimbledon – U.S Open – French Open – Australian Open
(Senior Category) / Individual
1019
20Participation in Olympic Games – World Championship / Cup – Wimbledon – U.S Open – French Open – Australian Open
(Senior Category) / Team
 20
21Participation in World Universiad – Davis Cup – Afro – Asian Games (Senior Category) / Individual1121
22Participation in World Universiad – Davis Cup – Afro – Asian Games (Senior Category) / Team 22
23Gold Medal in Asian Games – Commonwealth Games. (Senior Category) / Individual1223
24Gold Medal in Asian Games – Commonwealth Games. (Senior Category) / Team 24
25Silver Medal in Asian Games – Commonwealth Games. (Senior Category) / Individual1325
26Silver Medal in Asian Games – Commonwealth Games. (Senior Category) / Team 26
27Bronze Medal in Asian Games – Commonwealth Games. (Senior Category) / Individual1427
28Bronze Medal in Asian Games – Commonwealth Games. (Senior Category) / Team 28
29Gold Medal in Asian Championship – Commonwealth  Championship – Asia Pacific Championship.(Senior Category ) / Individual1529
30Gold Medal in Asian Championship – Commonwealth  Championship – Asia Pacific Championship.(Senior Category ) / Team 30
31Silver Medal in Asian Championship – Commonwealth  Championship – Asia Pacific Championship.(Senior Category ) /
Individual
1631
32Silver Medal in Asian Championship – Commonwealth  Championship – Asia Pacific Championship.(Senior Category ) / Team 32
33Bronze Medal in Asian Championship – Commonwealth  Championship – Asia Pacific Championship.(Senior Category ) /
Individual
1733
34Bronze Medal in Asian Championship – Commonwealth  Championship – Asia Pacific Championship.(Senior Category ) / Team 34
35Participation in Asian Games – Commonwealth Games (Senior Category ) / Individual1835
36Participation in Asian Games – Commonwealth Games (Senior Category ) / Team 36
37Gold Medal in SAF Games – SAARC Championship (Senior Category ) / Individual1937
38Gold Medal in SAF Games – SAARC Championship (Senior Category ) / Team 38
39Silver Medal in SAF Games – SAARC Championship (Senior Category ) / Individual2039
40Silver Medal in SAF Games – SAARC Championship (Senior Category ) / Team 40
41Bronze Medal in SAF Games – SAARC Championship (Senior Category ) / Individual2141
42Bronze Medal in SAF Games – SAARC Championship (Senior Category ) / Team. 42
43Participation in Asian Championship – Commonwealth Championship – Asia Pacific Championship (Senior Category ) /
Individual
2243
44Participation in Asian Championship – Commonwealth Championship – Asia Pacific Championship (Senior Category ) / Team 44
45Gold Medal in National Championship – National Games – Inter State – Inter Zonal – Open Nationals for Seniors – Federation
Cup. (Senior Category )/ Individual
2345
46Gold Medal in National Championship – National Games – Inter State – Inter Zonal – Open Nationals for Seniors – Federation Cup. (Senior Category )/ Team 46
47Silver Medal in National Championship – National Games – Inter State – Inter Zonal – Open Nationals for Seniors – Federation Cup. (Senior Category )/ Individual2447
48Silver Medal in National Championship – National Games – Inter State – Inter Zonal – Open Nationals for Seniors – Federation
Cup. (Senior Category )/ Team
 48
49Bronze  Medal in National Championship – National Games – Inter State – Inter Zonal – Open Nationals for Seniors – Federation Cup. (Senior Category )/ Individual2549
50Bronze  Medal in National Championship – National Games – Inter State – Inter Zonal – Open Nationals for Seniors – Federation Cup. (Senior Category )/ Team 50
51Participation in S.A.F Games – SAARC Championship (Senior Category ) / Individual2651
52Participation in S.A.F Games – SAARC Championship (Senior Category ) / Team 52
53Participation in National Championship – National Games – Inter State – Inter Zonal – Open Nationals for Seniors – Federation
Cup. (Senior Category ) / Individual
2753
54Participation in National Championship – National Games – Inter State – Inter Zonal – Open Nationals for Seniors – Federation Cup. (Senior Category ) / Team 54
55Gold Medal in World Championship / Cup for Juniors / World School Games. (Junior Category )/ Individual2855
56Gold Medal in World Championship / Cup for Juniors / World School Games. (Junior Category )/ Team 56
57Silver Medal in World Championship / Cup for Juniors / World School Games. (Junior Category )/ Individual2957
58Silver Medal in World Championship / Cup for Juniors / World School Games. (Junior Category )/ Team 58
59Bronze Medal in World Championship / Cup for Juniors / World School Games. (Junior Category )/ Individual3059
60Bronze Medal in World Championship / Cup for Juniors / World School Games. (Junior Category )/ Team 60
61Gold Medal in Asian Championship for Juniors – Asian School Games (Junior Category ) / Individual3161
62Gold Medal in Asian Championship for Juniors – Asian School Games (Junior Category ) /Team 62
63Silver Medal in Asian Championship for Juniors – Asian School Games (Junior Category ) / Individual3263
64Silver Medal in Asian Championship for Juniors – Asian School Games (Junior Category ) / Team 64
65Bronze Medal in Asian Championship for Juniors – Asian School Games (Junior Category ) / Individual3365
66Bronze Medal in Asian Championship for Juniors – Asian School Games (Junior Category ) / Team 66
67Participation in World Championship / Cup for Juniors / World School Games (Junior Category ) / Individual3467
68Participation in World Championship / Cup for Juniors / World School Games (Junior Category ) / Team 68
69Participation in Asian Championship for Juniors – Asian School Games (Junior Category ) / Individual3569
70Participation in Asian Championship for Juniors – Asian School Games (Junior Category ) / Team 70
71Gold Medal /First Place in the All India Inter University Championship./ Individual3671
72Gold Medal /First Place in the All India Inter University Championship./ Team 72
73Silver Medal /Second Place in the All India Inter University Championship./ Individual3773
74Silver Medal /Second Place in the All India Inter University Championship./Team 74
75Bronze Medal /Third Place in the All India Inter University Championship./ Individual3875
76Bronze Medal /Third Place in the All India Inter University Championship./ Team 76
77Gold Medal / First place in the National Championship for Juniors/Youth National Games/ Individual3977
78Gold Medal / First place in the National Championship for Juniors/Youth National Games/ Team 78
79Silver Medal / Second place in the National Championship for Juniors/Youth National Games/ Individual4079
80Silver Medal / Second place in the National Championship for Juniors/Youth National Games/ Team 80
81Bronze Medal / Third place in the National Championship for Juniors/Youth National Games/ Individual4181
82Bronze Medal / Third place in the National Championship for Juniors/Youth National Games/ Team 82
83Gold Medal in South Zone for Seniors / Individual4283
84Gold Medal in South Zone for Seniors / Team 84
85Silver Medal in South Zone for Seniors / Individual4385
86Silver Medal in South Zone for Seniors / Team 86
87Bronze Medal in South Zone for Seniors / Individual4487
88Bronze Medal in South Zone for Seniors / Team 88
89Participation in the All India Inter University Tournament /Individual4589
90Participation in the All India Inter University Tournament /Team 90
91Participation in the National Championship for Juniors – Youth National Games. / Individual4691
92Participation in the National Championship for Juniors – Youth National Games. / Team 92
93First place in Zonal Inter University Championship/ Individual4793
94First place in Zonal Inter University Championship/ Team 94
95Second place in Zonal Inter University Championship/ Individual4895
96Second place in Zonal Inter University Championship/ Team 96
97Third place in Zonal Inter University Championship/ Individual4997
98Third place in Zonal Inter University Championship/ Team 98
99Participation in South Zone Senior Championship / Individual5099
100Participation in South Zone Senior Championship / Team 100
101Participation in Zonal Inter  University Championship / Individual51101
102Participation in Zonal Inter  University Championship / Team 102
103Gold Medal in South Zone for Juniors / Individual51 (a)103
104Gold Medal in South Zone for Juniors / Team 104
105Silver Medal in South Zone for Juniors / Individual51 (b)105
106Silver Medal in South Zone for Juniors / Team 106
107Bronze Medal in South Zone for Juniors / Individual51 (c)107
108Bronze Medal in South Zone for Juniors / Team 108
109Gold Medal / First place in the National Sports Festival for Women/ Individual52109
110Gold Medal / First place in the National Sports Festival for Women/ Team 110
111Silver Medal / Second place in the National Sports Festival for Women/ Individual53111
112Silver Medal / Second place in the National Sports Festival for Women/ Team 112
113Bronze Medal / Third place in the National Sports Festival for Women/ Individual54113
114Bronze Medal / Third place in the National Sports Festival for Women/ Team 114
115Gold Medal in World Championship / Cup for sub-juniors / Individual55115
116Gold Medal in World Championship / Cup for sub-juniors / Team 116
117Silver Medal in World Championship / Cup for sub-juniors / Individual56117
118Silver Medal in World Championship / Cup for sub-juniors / Team 118
119Bronze Medal in World Championship / Cup for sub-juniors / Individual57119
120Bronze Medal in World Championship / Cup for sub-juniors / Team 120
121Gold Medal in National School Games u-19 & U-17 / individual58121
122Gold Medal in National School Games u-19 & U-17 / Team 122
123Silver Medal in National School Games u-19 & U-17 / individual59123
124Silver Medal in National School Games u-19 & U-17 / Team 124
125Bronze Medal in National School Games u-19 & U-17 / individual60125
126Bronze Medal in National School Games u-19 & U-17 / Team 126
127First place in all India CBSE & ICSE / Individual61127
128First place in all India CBSE & ICSE / Team 128
129Second place in all India CBSE & ICSE / Individual62129
130Second place in all India CBSE & ICSE / Team 130
131Third place in all India CBSE & ICSE / Individual63131
132Third place in all India CBSE & ICSE / Team 132
133Gold Medal / First place in All India Rural Sports Tournaments / Individual64133
134Gold Medal / First place in All India Rural Sports Tournaments / Team 134
135Silver Medal / Second place in All India Rural Sports Tournaments / Individual65135
136Silver Medal / Second place in All India Rural Sports Tournaments / Team 136
137Bronze Medal / Third place in All India Rural Sports Tournaments / Individual66137
138Bronze Medal / Third place in All India Rural Sports Tournaments / Team 138
139Participation is South Zone Juniors / Individual66 (a)139
140Participation is South Zone Juniors / Team 140
141Gold Medal / First place in Inter District for Seniors/ Individual67141
142Gold Medal / First place in Inter District for Seniors/ Team 142
143Silver Medal / Second place in Inter District for Seniors/ Individual68143
144Silver Medal / Second place in Inter District for Seniors/ Team 144
145Bronze Medal / Third place in Inter District for Seniors/ Individual69145
146Bronze Medal / Third place in Inter District for Seniors/ Team 146
147Participation in the World Championship for Sub-Juniors / Individual70147
148Participation in the World Championship for Sub-Juniors / Team 148
149Participation in National Championship for Women / Individual71149
150Participation in National Championship for Women / Team 150
151Participation in National School Games / Individual72151
152Participation in National School Games / Team 152
153Participation in All India CBSE & ICSE / Individual73153
154Participation in All India CBSE & ICSE / Team 154
155Participation in All India Rural Sports / Individual74155
156Participation in All India Rural Sports / Team 156
157First place in Inter District for Juniors / Individual75157
158First place in Inter District for Juniors / Team 158
159Second place in Inter District for Juniors / Individual76159
160Second place in Inter District for Juniors / Team 160
161Third place in Inter District for Juniors / Individual77161
162Third place in Inter District for Juniors / Team 162
163First place in State / Inter District Women Sports Festival / Individual78163
164First place in State / Inter District Women Sports Festival /  Team 164
165Second place in State / Inter District Women Sports Festival / Individual79165
166Second place in State / Inter District Women Sports Festival / Team 166
167Third place in State / Inter District Women Sports Festival / Individual80167
168Third place in State / Inter District Women Sports Festival / Team 168
169First place in the Inter Collegiate Competition / First place in state level inter polytechnic sports & games meet / Individual81169
170First place in the Inter Collegiate Competition / First place in state level inter polytechnic sports & games meet / Team 170
171Second place in the Inter Collegiate Competition /Second place in state level inter polytechnic sports & games meet / Individual82171
172Second place in the Inter Collegiate Competition /Second place in state level inter polytechnic sports & games meet / Team 172
173Third place in the Inter Collegiate Competition / Third place in state level inter polytechnic sports & games meet / Individual83173
174Third place in the Inter Collegiate Competition / Third place in state level inter polytechnic sports & games meet /Team 174
175First place in State / Inter District Rural Sports Tournament / Individual84175
176First place in State / Inter District Rural Sports Tournament / Team 176
177Second place in State / Inter District Rural Sports Tournament / Individual85177
178Second place in State / Inter District Rural Sports Tournament / Team 178
179Third place in State / Inter District Rural Sports Tournament / Individual86179
180Third place in State / Inter District Rural Sports Tournament / Team 180
181Participation in State / Inter District Championship for Seniors / Individual87181
182Participation in State / Inter District Championship for Seniors / Team 182
183Participation in State / Inter District Championship for Youth & Juniors / Individual88183
184Participation in State / Inter District Championship for Youth & Juniors / Team 184
185Participation in State / Inter District Championship for Women Sports Festival  / Individual89185
186Participation in State / Inter District Championship for Women Sports Festival  / Team 186
187Participation in the Inter Collegiate competition / Participation in State Level Inter Plytechnic Sports & Games Meet / Individual89 (a)187
188Participation in the Inter Collegiate competition / Participation in State Level Inter Plytechnic Sports & Games Meet / Team 188
189Participation  in State / Inter District Championship for School Games U-19, U-17, CBSE, ICSE & Rural Sports/ Individual90189
190Participation  in State / Inter District Championship for School Games U-19, U-17, CBSE, ICSE & Rural Sports/ Team 190

THE FOLLOWING GAMES & SPORTS ONLY WILL BE CONSIDERED UNDER SPORTS & GAMES CATEGORY IN RESPECT OF GO.MS.NO.10 DATED:15-7-2008 OF YOUTH ADVANCEMENT TOURISM & CULTURE (SPORTS ) DEPARTMENT

1Archery15Kho-Kho
2Atheletics16Roller Skating
3Basket ball17Rowing
4Boxing18Salling / Yatching
5Chess19Shooting
6Cricket20Shuttle Badmitton
7Cycling21Soft Ball
8Fencing22Swimming
9Foot Ball23Table Tennis
10Gymnestics24Taewando
11Hand Ball25Tennis
12Hockey26Volley Ball
13Judo27Weight-lifting
14Khabadi28Wrestling
  29Ball Badminton

THE FOLLOWING CLAUSES SHALL BE TAKEN INTO CONSIDERATION IN THE COURSE OF SPORTS & GAMES ADMISSIONS IN RESPECT OF GO.MS.NO.10 DATED:15-7-2008 OF YOUTH ADVANCEMENT TOURISM & CULTURE (SPORTS ) DEPARTMENT

a)Preference shall be given to the performance and participation in individual disciplines over team disciplines within in a priority.
b)Date of Birth shall be tallied proportionately to the category of age group vis-à-vis the concerned sport. The date of birth certificate issued by the Board of Secondary Education/ Similar Boards of Central / State Governments only shall be entertained as proof of age;
c)Admission shall be given to the candidates on their current sports performance, which will be to a maximum of 3 years.
d)The sports qualification, acquired between the period from the 10th /Inter/Diploma/Degree Examniation, as the case may be, and the respective Common Entrance Test, shall also be taken into consideration for extending sports quota to meritorious sportspersons, subject to the maximum period mentioned at provision (c) above;
e)Representation in the approved games and sports after qualifying at relevant Common Entrance Test shall not be considred;
f)In case of a tie between two or more candidates, for the sports quota reservation for the same seat, rank at “Common Entrance Test” will prevail’
g)No preference shall be given to the candidates having represented more than one game or sport.  The priority will be decided based on the highest entitlement from among the priorities admissible to a particular candidate based on his/her representation in different games/sports;
h)The decision of sports Authority of Telangana/Andhra Pradesh is final and for scrutiny of claims by sports Authority of Telangana/Andhra Pradesh, the candidates shall submit information as called for in the format prescribed by sports Authority.

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