The Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), which is now known as the Ministry of Education, Government of India (GOI), has established National Testing Agency (NTA) as an independent, autonomous and self-sustained premier testing organization under Society Registration Act 1860 for conducting efficient, transparent and international standards tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admissions to premier higher education institutions.
The Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Human Resource Development (now known as Ministry of Education), Government of India has entrusted the responsibility of conducting Joint Entrance Examination JEE (Main) to the NTA from 2019 onwards.
The Joint Entrance Examination (JEE Main) comprises of two papers. The Paper1 is conducted for admission to Undergraduate Engineering Programs (B.E/B. Tech) at NITs, IIITs, other Centrally Funded Technical Institutions (CFTIs), Institutions/Universities funded/recognized by participating State Governments, as well as an eligibility test for JEE (Advanced), which is conducted for admission to IITs.
The JEE (Main) is being conducted in multiple Sessions (February/March/April/May 2021) for admissions in the next academic session. The candidates will thus benefit in the following ways:
This will give multiple opportunities to the candidates to improve their scores in the examination if they fail to give their best in the first attempt without wasting their whole academic year.
In first attempt, the students will get a first-hand experience of taking an examination and will know their mistakes which they can improve while attempting for the next time.
This will reduce the chances of dropping a year and droppers would not have to waste a full year.
If anyone missed the examination due to reasons beyond control, then he/she will not have to wait for one full year.
The student’s best of the 2021 NTA Scores will be considered for preparation of Merit List/ Ranking.
Correction in the Online Application Form of JEE (Main)-2021 Entrance Examination
It is brought to the notice of all the registered candidates of JEE (Main) -2021 that the facility for correction in their data (wherever necessary), will be operational on the website jeemain.nta.nic.in from 27/01/2021 to 30/01/2021.
All the registered candidates for the said Examination are advised to visit the website and verify their particulars. They are further advised to make correction in their particulars, in their respective registration form, wherever incorrect or incomplete.
The candidates are allowed to make the corrections, (if any), latest by 30/01/2020.Thereafter, no correction in particulars, whatsoever, will be entertained by NTA under any circumstances. The additional fee (if applicable) shall be paid by the candidate concerned either through Credit/Debit Card/Net Banking/UPI and PAYTM Wallet generated during the online correction from 27/01/2021 to 30/01/2021 (11:50 p.m.).
Since, it is a onetime facility extended to the candidates to avoid any hardships to them, the candidates are informed to do the correction very carefully, as no further chance for correction will be given to them.
The Candidates are advised to keep visiting the official websites of NTA (www.nta.ac.in) and (jeemain.nta.nic.in)for the latest updates.
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Note: (i) A candidate has option to apply for one Session or more than one Session (February/March /April /May 2021) together and pay exam fee accordingly. In other words, if a candidate wishes to apply only for one Session, he/ she has to pay Examination Fee only for that Session during the current application period and will have opportunity to apply again for the remaining March/ April / May Sessions.
The application window will be re-opened briefly immediately after the declaration of the result of February / March/ April Session.
Examination for the May session will be the last Examination for coming academic year. Fees can also be carried forward to another Session of JEE (Main) 2021.
Incase a candidate does not want to appear in the Session for which fee has already been paid, it will be refunded by NTA. For this, the Candidate will have to make a request only during the application process of the session for which he/she wants to withdraw.
Multiple Application Forms submitted by a candidate for the same Session(s) will not be accepted at any cost.
The fee can be submitted only online through Net Banking, Credit Card, Debit Card, UPI or Paytm Services. Processing charges and GST as applicable are chargeable to the candidate (in addition to the examination fee) by the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator. For details / procedure, please see Appendix-IV
Candidates who apply for more than one Session of examination (February/March/April/May), may change their Choice of Cities in the correction window, which will be opened in due course under intimation to them through Public Notice for each Session.
The Confirmation Page of the online Application Form will be generated only after successful payment by the Candidate. In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of fee, then the candidate may have to approach the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway (in the helpline no. and email given in Appendix- IV of the Information Bulletin) for ensuring the successful payment or for obtaining the refund of duplicate / multiple payments].
2. Candidates must read carefully the Instructions (including how to fill up Application Form online) given in the Information Bulletin available on the NTA Website. Candidates not complying with the Instructions shall be summarily disqualified.
3. Candidates can apply for JEE (Main) 2021 through “Online” mode only. The Application Form in any other mode will not be accepted.
4. Submission of Application Form could be made by the candidate online through NTA website: jeemain.nta.nic.in.
5. Instructions for filling Online Application Form:
Download Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form. Read these carefully to ensure your eligibility.
Follow the steps given below to Apply Online:
Step-1: Apply for Online Registration using own Email Id and Mobile No.
Step-2: Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated Application Number.
Step-3: Upload scanned images of:
(i) the recent photograph (file size 10Kb – 200Kb) should be either in colour or black & white with 80% face (without mask) visible including ears against white background;
(ii) candidate’s signature (file size: 4kb – 30kb);
(iii) duly verified resultScheme of Examination awaited attestation form (file size: 50kb to 500kb),
(iv) category certificate (SC/ST/OBC/EWS etc.) (file size: 50kb to 300KB),
(v) PwD certificate (file size: 50kb to 300kb) in jpg/jpeg format.
Step-4: Pay fee using SBI/Canara Bank/HDFC Bank/ICICI Bank/Paytm Payment Gateway through Debit Card/Credit Card / Net Banking/UPI and keep proof of fee paid.
Download, save and print a copy of Confirmation Page of the Application Form (which would be downloadable only after successful remittance of fee) for future reference.
All the 4 Steps can be done together or at separate timings. The submission of Application of a candidate could be considered as successful and his/her candidature would be confirmed only on the successful transaction/receipt of the prescribed application fee from him/her.
6. Candidates shall ensure that the information entered by them in their respective online Application Form are correct.
7. Information provided by the candidates in their respective online Application Forms, like, name of candidate, contact/ address details, category, PwD status, educational qualification details, date of birth, choice of exam cities, etc. will be treated as final. Any request for change in such particulars after the closure of correction period will not be considered by NTA under any circumstances.
8. NTA does not edit /modify/alter any information entered by the candidates after completion of application process under any circumstances. Any request for change in information thereafter will not be entertained. Therefore, candidates are advised to exercise utmost caution before filling up correct details in the Application Form.
9. NTA disclaims any liability that may arise to a candidate(s) due to incorrect information provided by him/her in his/her online Application Form.
10. Candidates must ensure that their email address and mobile number to be registered in their online Application Form are their own, as relevant/important information/ communication will be sent by NTA through e-mail on the registered e-mail address and / or through SMS on registered mobile number only. NTA shall not be responsible for any non-communication / mis- communication with a candidate in the email address or mobile number given by him/her other than his/her own.
11. Candidates are advised to visit the NTA Website and check their e-mails regularly for latest updates.
12. Candidates shall appear at their own cost at the Examination Centre on the date, shift and time indicated on their Admit Cards issued by the NTA in due course through its Website.
Note :
The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step-3 and step-4 are not complete. Such forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be entertained.
The entire application process for JEE (Main) 2021 is online, including uploading of scanned images, payment of fees, and printing of Confirmation Page, Admit Card, etc. Therefore, candidates are not required to send/submit any document(s) including Confirmation Page to NTA through Post/ Fax/WhatsApp/Email/by Hand.
Usage of Data and Information: NTA/Government of India can use the data provided by the End Users (test taker in this case) for internal purpose(s) including training, research and development, analysis and other permissible purpose(s). However, this information is not for use by any third party or private agency for any other use.
Brief Advisory regarding COVID-19 Pandemic:
Candidates are advised to carry only the following with them into the examination venue:
Admit card along with Self Declaration (Undertaking) downloaded from the NTA Website (a clear printout on A4 size paper) duly filled in.
A simple transparent Ball Point Pen.
Additional photograph, to be pasted on attendance sheet
Personal hand sanitizer (50 ml).
Personal transparent water bottle.
Sugar tablets/fruits (like banana/apple/orange) in case the candidate is diabetic.
Note:
Candidate shall ensure that the information (like, his/her name. mother’s name, father’s name, gender, date of birth, category, PwD status, mobile number, email address, photograph and signature, choice of cities for exam center, etc.) provided by them in their online Application Form are correct and of their own. Candidates are advised to exercise utmost care for filling up correct details in the Application Form. Any request for change in the particulars after the closure of correction period will not be considered by NTA under any circumstances. Corrections sent by the candidate through Post/ Fax/WhatsApp/Email/by Hand will not be entertained by NTA.
In case it is found at any time in future that the Candidate has used / uploaded the photograph, signature and certificate(s) of someone else in his/ her Application Form / Admit Card or he/she has tampered his/her Admit Card / result, these acts of the candidate shall be treated as Unfair Means (UFM) Practices on his/her part and he/she shall be proceeded with the actions as contemplated under the provisions of the Information Bulletin relating to Unfair Means Practices.
Candidates are NOT allowed to carry Instruments, Geometry or Pencil box, Handbag, Purse, any kind of Paper/ Stationery/ Textual material (printed or written material), Eatables and Water (loose or packed), Mobile Phone/ Earphone/ Microphone/ Pager, Calculator, Document, Slide Rules, Log Tables, Camera, Tape Recorder, Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, any metallic item or electronic gadgets/ devices in the Examination Hall/Room.
The Joint Entrance Examination (JEE Main) comprises of two papers. The Paper1 is conducted for admission to Undergraduate Engineering Programs (B.E/B. Tech) at NITs, IIITs, other Centrally Funded Technical Institutions (CFTIs), Institutions/Universities funded/recognized by participating State Governments, as well as an eligibility test for JEE (Advanced), which is conducted for admission to IITs. Candidates of UPSEE (2021) will take JEE (Main) 2021. The Paper 2 is conducted for admission to B. Arch and B. Planning courses in the Country. From this year, Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Technical University (AKTU), Lucknow will also use the score sheet of JEE (Main) – 2021 for admission to the B.Tech / M.Tech (Integrated)/B.Arch. Courses in its affiliated colleges across the State.
The JEE (Main) 2021 will be conducted in multiple sessions for admissions in the next academic session. The candidates will thus benefit in the following ways:
This will give multiple opportunities to the candidates to improve their scores in the examination if they are not able to give their best in one attempt.
In first attempt, the students will get a first-hand experience of taking an examination and will know their mistakes which they can improve while attempting for the next time.
This will reduce the chances of dropping a year and droppers would not have to waste a full year.
If anyone missed the examination due to reasons beyond control (such as Board examination), then he/she will not have to wait for one full year.
A candidate need not appear in all the four Sessions. However, if candidate appears in more than one Session then his/her best of the 2021 NTA Scores will be considered for preparation of Merit List/ Ranking.
The Paper 1 of JEE (Main) 2021 will be held in February 2021 followed by next three Sessions in March, April, and May 2021. This is being done to ensure that the JEE (Main) 2021 does not interfere with the Board examinations, which may be held at different times across the States/UTs. Paper 2A & Paper 2B (B. Arch & B. Planning) will be held only twice a year (February & May 2021)
The NTA has decided to provide choices in one section to cater to the decision of different Boards across the country regarding the reduction of syllabus. However, the total number of questions to be attempted will remain the same (Physics – 25, Chemistry – 25 and Mathematics – 25), wherever applicable.
Mode of Examination
JEE (Main)-2021 will be conducted in the following modes:
Paper 1 (B.E. /B. Tech.) in “Computer Based Test (CBT)” mode only.
Paper 2A (B. Arch): Mathematics (Part-I) and Aptitude Test (Part-II) in “Computer Based Test (CBT)” mode only and Drawing Test (Part-III) in pen & paper (offline) mode, to be attempted on drawing sheet of A4 size.
Paper 2B (B. Planning): Mathematics (Part-I), Aptitude Test (Part-II) and Planning Based Questions (Part-III) in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode only.
Choice of Medium of Question Papers
Medium of the Question Papers: Drawing form the National Education Policy (NEP), the JEE (Main) 2021 will now be conducted for the first time in Assamese, Bengali, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu for the first time, in addition to Hindi, Gujarati and English
S. No.
Language
Examination Centres
1.
English
All Examination Centres
2.
Hindi
All Examination Centres in India
3.
English and Assamese
Examination Centres in Assam
4.
English and Bengali
Examination Centres in West Bengal, Tripura and Andaman & Nicobar Island
5.
English and Gujarati
Examination Centres in Gujarat, Daman and Diu, Dadra and Nagar Haveli
6.
English and Kannada
Examination Centres in Karnataka
7.
English and Marathi
Examination Centres in Maharashtra
8.
English and Malayalam
Examination Centres in Kerala and Lakshadweep
9.
English and Odia
Examination Centres in Odisha
10.
English and Punjabi
Examination Centres in Punjab, Chandigarh and Delhi
11.
English and Tamil
Examination Centres in Tamil Nadu, Puducherry and Andaman & Nicobar Island
12.
English and Telugu
Examination Centres in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
13.
English and Urdu
All Examination Centres in India
The option of language for question paper should be exercised while filling up the Application Form online and it cannot be changed at a later stage.
Please note that for the correctness of the questions in all the question papers, the English version will be taken as final.
Scheme of Examination
Subject combinations for each paper, type of questions in each paper, and mode of examination is given in the table below:
Pattern of Examination
Important Note for Multiple Choice Questions: To answer a question, the candidates need to choose one option corresponding to the correct answer or the most appropriate answer. However, if after the process of challenges of the key, more than one option is found to be correct then the multiple correct options will be given four marks (+4). Any incorrect option marked will be given the minus one mark (-1). Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no marks.
Syllabus
The details of the syllabus are given on the website: jeemain.nta.nic.in. Moreover, to cater to different reduction in syllabus by various Boards, the NTA has decided to provide for choice in the question papers and thus there will be two Sections in each paper.
Eligibility Criteria
AgeLimit
For appearing in the JEE (Main) 2021, there is no age limit for the candidates. The candidates who have passed the class 12 / equivalent examination in 2019, 2020, or appearing in 2021 irrespective of their age can appear in JEE (Main) 2021 examination. However, the candidates may be required to fulfil the age criteria of the Institute(s) in which they are desirous of taking admission.
List of Qualifying Examinations (QE)
The final examination of the 10+2 system, conducted by any recognized Central/ State Board, such as Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi; Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations, New Delhi; etc.
Intermediate or two-year Pre-University examination conducted by a recognized Board/ University.
Final examination of the two-year course of the Joint Services Wing of the National Defense Academy
Senior Secondary School Examination conducted by the National Institute of Open Schooling with a minimum of five subjects.
Any Public School/ Board/ University examination in India or any foreign country recognized as equivalent to the 10+2 system by the Association of Indian Universities (AIU).
A Diploma recognized by AICTE or a State board of technical education of at least 3 years duration.
General Certificate Education (GCE) examination (London/Cambridge/Sri Lanka) at the Advanced (A) level.
High School Certificate Examination of the Cambridge University or International Baccalaureate Diploma of the International Baccalaureate Office, Geneva.
Year of Appearance in Qualifying Examination
Only those candidates who have passed Class 12 / equivalent examination in 2019, 2020 or 2021; or those who are appearing in Class 12 / equivalent examination in 2021, are eligible to appear in JEE (Main) 2021.
Candidates who passed Class 12/equivalent examination in 2018 or before as well as those who will appear in such examination in 2022 or later are not eligible to appear in JEE (Main) 2021.
Candidates must note that the IITs permit only two attempts for the JEE (Advanced), i.e. a candidate should have appeared for the Class XII (or equivalent) examination for the first time in either 2020 or 2021, subject to the condition of not having been admitted at an IIT on an earlier occasion. Details may be obtained from the Information Brochure of the JEE (Advanced) 2021. Please see link: https://home.iitd.ac.in/news-jab.php https://jeeadv.ac.in/.
State of Eligibility
State code of eligibility means the code of the State from where the candidate has passed Class XII (or equivalent) qualifying examination by virtue of which the candidate becomes eligible to appear in JEE (Main) 2021. It is important to note that the State code of eligibility does NOT depend upon the native place or the place of residence of the candidate. For example, if a candidate appears for the Class XII examination in New Delhi and is a resident of Noilda, Uttar Pradesh, the candidate’s State code of eligibility will be that of Delhi and NOT that of Uttar Pradesh.
If a candidate has passed Class XII (or equivalent) qualifying examination from one State but appeared for improvement from another State, the candidate’s State code of eligibility will be from where the candidate first passed the Class XII (or equivalent) examination and NOT the State from where the candidate has appeared for improvement.
Candidate passed/appearing class 12th from NIOS should select the State of Eligibility according to the State in which the study centre is located.
For Indian nationals passing the Class XII (or equivalent) examination from Nepal/Bhutan, the State code of eligibility will be determined based on a permanent address in India as given in the passport of the candidate.
The State code of eligibility of OCI/PIO passing Class XII (or equivalent) examination in India is at par with Indian nationals. However, OCI/PIO passing the Class XII (or equivalent) examination from an institution abroad are eligible for Other State quota seats or All India quota seats (but NOT for Home State quota seats) in all NITs, IIEST and Other-CFTIs
Reservations
In the case of Institutes run by the Central Government, the reservation would be applicable as mentioned below:
15% of the seats Scheduled Castes (SC) candidates
7.5% seats for Scheduled Tribes (ST) candidates
27% seats for Other Backward Classes (OBC) Non-Creamy Layer (NCL) candidates as per the Central List*
10% of the seats for General Economically Weaker Sections (General -EWS) candidates
Persons with Disability (PwD) with 40% or more disability
Each category will have 5% reservations for the candidates with 40% or more disability as defined in Section 2 (r) and (zc) of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016
In the case of the Institutes run/aided/recognized by State Governments, the reservation policy of the respective State Governments shall be applicable.
Notes:
The benefit of reservation for admission to NITs/IIITs and CFTIs shall be given only to those classes/castes/tribes which are in the respective Central List published by the Government of India from time to time.
Other Backward Classes – Non-Creamy Layer (OBC–NCL) are as per the Central list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in Thus, the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General.
Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD):
As per Section 2(t) of the RPwD Act, “Persons with Disability (PwD)” means a person with long term physical, mental, intellectual, or sensory impairment which, in interaction with barriers, hinders his full and effective participation in society equally with others.
According to Section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016, “persons with benchmark disabilities” means a person with not less than forty percent (40%) of a specified disability where specified disability has not been defined in measurable terms and includes a person with disability where specified disability has been defined in measurable terms, as certified by the certifying authority.
The “specified disabilities”, which are included in the Schedule of the RPwD Act, are as follows:
Facilities for PwD candidates to appear in the exam
As per the guidelines issued by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan) under Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment issued from time to time on the subject: “Written Examination for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities”, A candidate with one of the benchmark disabilities [as defined in Section 2(r) of RPwD Act, 2016], holding a Disability Certificate in the format prescribed in Appendix- I, is entitled to the following facilities:
The facility of Scribe, in case he/she has a physical limitation and a scribe is essential to write the examination on his/her behalf, being so certified in the aforesaid format by a CMO/Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of a Govt. Health Care Institution. However, as a measure of caution and due to the prevailing circumstances of COVID-19 Pandemic, such candidate is required to bring his/her own Scribe along with an undertaking in the format given at Appendix-II.
Compensatory time of one hour for examination of three hours duration, whether such candidate uses the facility of Scribe or not.
The NTA does not guarantee any change in the category or sub-category (PwD status) after the submission of the Online Application Form, and in any case, no change will be entertained by NTA after the declaration of JEE (Main) NTA Score 2021. The category/sub- category (PwD status) entered in the JEE (Main) Database by the candidate will be used for the JEE (Advanced). Therefore, the candidates are advised to fill in the category / sub- category column very carefully.
Choice of Cities
The Cities where the JEE (Main) 2021 will be conducted are given in Appendix-III. While applying, candidates have to select any four cities of their choice. The efforts will be made to allot the city of examination to the candidates in order of choice opted by them in their online Application Form. However, due to administrative/logistic reasons, a different city can beallotted.
The decision of the NTA regarding the allotment of the Centre shall be final. No further correspondence or request shall be entertained in such a case.
e-Admit Card
The e-Admit Card would be issued provisionally to the candidates through the NTA website: jeemain.nta.nic.in, subject to the fulfillment of the eligibility conditions and receipt of prescribed application fee by NTA.
The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website. The candidate will appear in the examination at the given Centre on the date and shift/timing as indicated in his/her e-Admit Card
No candidate will be allowed to appear at the examination centre, on the date and shift/time other than that allotted to him/her in his/her Admit card.
In case a candidate is unable to download his/her Admit Card from the website, he/she should approach the NTA Help Line Number: 0120-6895200 between 10.00 am to 5.00 pm.
The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully and strictly follow them during the examination.
In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or his/her photograph and signature shown in the e-Admit Card and Confirmation Page, the candidate may immediately approach the NTA Help Line between 10.00 am to 5.00 pm. In such case, candidate would appear in the examination with the already downloaded Admit Card. However, NTA will take necessary action to make correction in the record later.
The Admit Card for February Session of the examination may be available for downloading in the second week of February, 2021. The timing for downloading the Admit Card for subsequent Sessions of the exam will be announced on the NTA website (jeemain.nta.nic.in)
Note:
Candidate may please note that Admit Cards will not be sent by post.
In no case, the duplicate Admit Card for Joint Entrance Examination (Main) 2021 would be issued at the Examination Centres.
Candidate must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made therein
Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Cards in good condition for future reference.
No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose Applications are found to be incomplete for any reasons (including indistinct/ doubtful photographs/unsigned Applications) or who do not fulfil the eligibility criteria for the examination.
Issue of Admit Cards, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility which shall be further scrutinized at subsequent stages of admission process.
Schedule of Examination
JEE (Main) NTA Score for B.E./B.Tech, B.Arch, andB.Planning
Evaluation of multiple choice questions of B.E./B.Tech, B.Arch and B.Planning will be carried out using final answer keys and the raw (actual) marks obtained by a candidate will be considered further for computation of the result of JEE (Main) February -2021.
For multi-shift papers, raw marks obtained by the candidates in different shifts/sessions will be converted to NTA Score.
The detailed procedure based on NTA Score being adopted is available on NTA website
Compilation and display of Result of B.E./B.Tech (Session1)
Since JEE (Main) February-2021 (Session 1), B.E./B.Tech first Session will be conducted in multi-shifts, NTA scores will be calculated corresponding to the raw marks obtained by a candidate. The calculated NTA scores for all the shifts of session 1 will be declared by in March, 2021. This shall comprise the NTA scores for each of the three subjects (Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry) and the total in B.E./B.Tech of JEE (Main) February – 2021 (Session 1).
Compilation and display of Result of B.Arch andB.Planning
Since JEE (Main) February -2021, B. Arch and B. Planning first Session will be conducted in multi-shifts, NTA scores will be calculated corresponding to the raw marks obtained by a candidate. The calculated NTA scores for all the shifts will be declared by in March, 2021. This shall comprise of the NTA scores for each of the three parts (Mathematics, Aptitude Test, Drawing Test or Planning Based Test) and total in B. Arch/B. Planning of JEE (Main) February – 2021 (Session 1).
Note:
The All India Rank shall be compiled and declared after conduct of the JEE (Main) May 2021 Examination.
No Score/Rank Card will be dispatched to the candidates and the candidates are advised to download their Score/Rank Cards from the JEE (Main) website: www.nta.ac.in / jeemain.nta.nic.in only.
There shall be no provision for re-valuation/re-checking of the Score. No correspondence in this regard shall be entertained.
Only the All India Rank (AIR) is used for admissions through Central Seat Allocation Board (CSAB)/Joint Seat Allocation Authority (JoSAA) to NITs/ IIITs/ CFTIs/ SFIs/ Others.
All participating Institutions that do not use the Centralized Seat Allocation Process will prepare their own ranking based on the performance in JEE (Main) 2021 and other criteria as decided by them.
The National Testing Agency (NTA) is an examination conducting body and not an admission giving authority. Therefore, NTA does not collect the information regarding the total number of seats available in the institutions, or the eligibility and reservation criteria followed by the institutions.
Re-Evaluation/Re-Checking of result
There shall be no re-evaluation/re-checking of result. No correspondence in this regard shall be entertained.
Admission to NITs, IIITs, CFTIs, SFIs, State Engineering Colleges in the Participating States and Other Participating Institutions including UPSEEEligibility for Admission to NITs, IIITs and CFTIs participating though Central Seat Allocation Board(CSAB):
Admission to B.E. / B.Tech / B.Arch / B.Planning. Courses in NITs, IIITs, and CFTIs participating though Central Seat Allocation Board will be based on All India Rank subject to the condition that the candidate should have secured at least 75% marks in the 12thclass examination or be in the top 20 percentile in the 12th class / Qualifying examination conducted by the respective Boards. For SC/ST candidates the qualifying marks would be 65% in the 12th class / qualifying examination..
The eligibility criteria decided by the Council of Architecture for admission to B.Arch. course other than NITs, IIITs, CFTIs:
“No candidate shall be admitted to Architecture course unless she/he has passed an examination at the end of the qualifying examination with 50% marks in Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics and also 50% marks in aggregate of the qualifying examination”.
For B. Planning, the candidates should have passed the qualifying examination with 50
% marks in Mathematics and 50% marks in aggregate of the qualifying examination.
Subject combinations required in the qualifying examination for admission to B.E./B.Tech, B. Arch, and B. Planning Courses in NITs, IIITs, and other CFTIs shall be as under.
Course
Required Criteria based on Class 12th / Equivalent qualifying Examination
B.E/B.Tech.
Passed qualifying examination with Physics and Mathematics as compulsory subjectsalong with one of the Chemistry/Biotechnology/Biology/ Technical Vocational subject.
B.Arch.
Passed qualifying examination with Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
B.Planning
Passed qualifying examination with Mathematics
The Admission Policy, as announced by the Competent Authority of the admitting institutes shall be followed at the time of admission. The Candidates are advised to satisfy themselves about their Eligibility for Admission from the respective websites of admitting authorities.
All the programs of study covered under Uttar Pradesh State Entrance Examination (UPSEE), which was conducted by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Technical University (AKTU), Lucknow, will also be conducted by National Testing Agency w.e.f. 2021 onwards.
For the Academic Year (2021), Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Technical University, Lucknow will use the score sheet of JEE (Main) for admission to B. Tech, B. Arch, M. Tech (Integrated) Courses in its affiliated Colleges across the State of Uttar Pradesh.
Eligibility for Admission to Other Institutions
The above-mentioned policy could also be adopted by other Technical Institutions participating in counseling through JoSAA/CSAB. In case a State opts to admit students in the engineering Colleges affiliated to State Universities, the State may prepare a separate rank list based on criteria decided by them.
For all admission related procedures/queries, the candidates are advised to refer to the website of JoSAA, Central Seat Allocation Board (CSAB), or the concerned State Government/Institute after the declaration of result/ranks of JEE (Main) 2021
The letter / e-mails / grievances / queries / RTI applications / Court cases pertaining to admission related matters/procedures will not be entertained by NTA. The same may be addressed to the concerned Counseling / Authorities/ Admitting Institutions.
Seat Allocation Process and Admission Procedure
Candidates shall be offered admission based on their choices and All India Ranks of JEE (Main) 2021 through a Seat Allocation Process to be announced later CSAB/ JoSAA. The authentication/verification of relevant documents in support of identification, date of birth, qualifying examination, State of eligibility, category and disability (if any) of the qualifying candidates would be done at the time of Seat Allocation/ admission process. On failing to produce any of the authentic documents, the candidate may not be considered for admission.
Gen-EWS, SC, ST, OBC and PwD candidates will be required to produce original certificate as per prescribed formats issued by the competent authority at the time of Seat Allocation / admission process failing which they will not be considered for admission.
Eligibility Criteria for Appearing in JEE (Advanced) 2021
(Please refer to JEE (Advanced) website https://jeeadv.ac.in/ for the latest information)
The minimum academic qualification for appearing in JEE (Advanced) -2021 is that the candidate must have passed in final examination of Class 12 or equivalent qualifying examination with at least 75% aggregate marks (65% for SC, ST, and PwD) or being in the top 20 percentile of the successful candidates in their respective Board examinations. Those appearing in these examinations in 2021 can also appear in JEE (Advanced) – 2021 provisionally and these candidates would also have to fulfill the above requirements. The IITs have specific eligibility criteria for admission, which include an age bar, limited number of attempts, and year of passing class 12th or equivalent; candidates are advised to refer to the JEE (Advanced) 2021 website for details.
All the candidates aspiring to take admission to the undergraduate programs at IITs for the year 2021 will have to appear in the B. E. /B. Tech. of JEE (Main)-2021. Based on the performance in the B. E. /B. Tech. of JEE (Main)-2021, number of top candidates as per the requirement of JEE (Advanced) (including all categories) will be eligible to appear in JEE (Advanced)-2021.
A candidate can attempt JEE (Advanced) a maximum of two times in consecutive years irrespective of whether or not he/she passed the Qualifying Examination. The candidates, who have attempted JEE (Main) /JEE (Advanced) in 2020 or earlier, are NOT ELIGIBLE to appear in JEE (Advanced)–2021.
The candidate who had taken admission in any institute other than IITs in 2020 is eligible to appear in JEE (Advanced)–2021 provided that the candidate satisfies other eligibility criteria.
Joint Admission Board (JAB) allows candidates, who missed JEE (Advanced) 2020 due to being COVID-19 positive, to reappear in 2021:
In an emergency meeting, which was held virtually on October 13th, 2020, the Joint Admission Board (JAB), having the authority to frame the policies, rules and regulations of Joint Entrance Examination under the guidance of the IIT Council, has considered relaxation of the eligibility criteria and decided to permit an extra attempt for those candidates who were unable to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2020 on account of being Covid-19 positive.
The JAB also discussed in detail the various options open to it for those candidates who were prevented from appearing in JEE (Advanced) 2020 due to restrictions imposed due to Covid-19. Subsequently, to address the concerns of the affected candidates, while avoiding prejudice to other candidates, it has been decided to allow all the candidates, who had successfully registered to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2020 but were absent in the exam, to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2021, as a one-time measure.
To ensure equal opportunity to all, the JAB has also decided that these candidates will not have to qualify JEE (Main) 2021 and will be allowed to directly appear in JEE (Advanced) 2021 on the basis of their successful registration to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2020. This relaxation of existing eligibility criteria will be in addition to proportionate relaxation of age bar.
Further, it was decided that these candidates would be considered in addition to and not as part of the total number of candidates who would qualify from JEE (Main) 2021 for appearing in JEE (Advanced) 2021.
IIT Delhi was the organising institute for the JEE (Advanced) 2020.
PAYMENT OF PROCESSING FEE, SLOT BOOKING, CERTIFICATE VERIFICATION AND OPTION EXERCISE FOR WEB BASED COUNSELLING
The eligible and qualified candidates of TSEAMCET-2020 desirous of seeking admission into B.E/B.Tech / Pharmacy Courses are informed that the payment of Processing Fee, Slot Booking for Certificate Verification, Certificate Verification and Option Exercise will commence as per the schedule given below. For details of procedure to be followed and other relevant information please read instructions to the candidate placed in the website https://tseamcet.nic.in
WHO CAN APPLY:
Candidates who had qualified in TSEAMCET-2020 and who secured 45% (for OC) and 40% (for others) in group subjects of intermediate or its equivalent examination.
ATTENTION TO NOT QUALIFIED NOT APPEARED TSEAMCET -2020 MINORITY CANDIDATES:
Minority candidates (Muslim / Christian) who have not qualified or not appeared in TSEAMCET -2020 (M.P.C Stream) and who secured 45% (for OC) and 40% (for others) in group subjects of intermediate or its equivalent examination to consider them for the leftover seats in respective minority colleges, if any, after exhausting all the qualified Minority candidates of TSEAMCET-2020 (M.P.C Stream). However, these candidates are not eligible for Fee Reimbursement Scheme. For procedure to apply to this category please visit the website https://tseamcet.nic.in.
COUNSELLING SCHEDULE:
FIRST PHASE
S. NO
DETAILS
DATES
1
Online filing of Basic Information, Payment of Processing Fee & Slot Booking for selection of Help Line Centre, Date & Time to attend for Certificate Verification
09-10-2020 to 17-10-2020
2
Certificate Verification for already Slot Booked candidates
12-10-2020 to 18-10-2020
3
Exercising Options after Certificate Verification
12-10-2020 to 20-10-2020
4
Freezing of options
20-10-2020
5
Provisional Allotment of Seats
22-10-2020
6
Payment of Tuition Fee & self reporting through website
22-10-2020 to 27-10-2020
FINAL PHASE
S. NO
DETAILS
DATES
1
Online filing of Basic Information, Payment of Processing Fee & Slot Booking for selection of Help Line Centre, Date & Time to attend for Certificate Verification for not attended candidates in First Phase
29-10-2020
2
Certificate Verification for already Slot Booked candidates in the final Phase
30-10-2020
3
Exercising options
30-10-2020 to 31-10-2020
4
Freezing of options
31-10-2020
5
Provisional Allotment of Seats
2020-02-11
6
Payment of Tuition Fee, Self Reporting through website and Reporting at the allotted College
02-11-2020 to 05-11-2020
SPOT ADMISSIONS (Private Unaided Engineering and B Pharmacy Colleges)
The Spot Admission guidelines for Private Unaided Engineering and B Pharmacy Colleges will be placed in the website https://tseamcet.nic.in
2020-04-11
ELIGIBILITY FOR ADMISSION:
Candidate shall be an Indian National.
Candidate should belong to the State of Telangana /Andhra Pradesh as defined in G.O.(P).No. 646, Education (w) Dept., dated 10-07-1979 and its subsequent amendments.
In respect of under Graduate Professional Courses in Engineering (including Technology ) and Pharmacy the candidate should have completed 16 years of age as on 31-12-2020.
In respect of Pharm D (Doctor of Pharmacy) Course the candidate should have completed 17 years of age as on 31-12-2020.
However maximum eligible age for obtaining a scholarship is 25 years for OC candidates and 29 years for other candidates as on 01-07-2020 as per the guidelines prescribed in Memo No. 10537/SW(Edn.2)/2011,dated: 20-10-2012 and further guidelines issued from time to time by Social Welfare (Edn.) Department shall apply.
Mere appearing for TSEAMCET-2020 and obtaining a rank does not entitle a candidate to be considered for admission automatically unless the candidate fulfils the requirements laid down for admissions.
PAYMENT OF PROCESSING FEE:
Visit website https://tseamcet.nic.in and click on the link “PAYMENT OF PROCESSING FEE”
Register by entering
Registration Number given on TSEAMCET-2020 Hall Ticket.
Date of Birth as mentioned in the SSC Marks Memo.
Hall Ticket Number of Intermediate or its equivalent.
The Basic Information Form is displayed. Fill in the details regarding, Mobile No and Email Address. Also fill the details of Caste Certificate and Income Certificate application Number issued by MeeSeva, if applicable. Change of mobile number is not permitted.
Update the information and pay the Processing Fee of Rs. 600/- (for SC/ST) and Rs. 1200/- (for others) through online payment (Credit Card / Debit Card / Net Banking).
SLOT BOOKING FOR CERTIFICATE VERIFICATION:
All categories (OC/BC/SC/ST/MINORITY) candidates, Book your Slot (Selection of Help Line Center, Date & Time) to attend Certificate Verification at your nearest or convenient Help Line Center (HLC) mentioned in Annexure-I within the scheduled dates and attend for the Certificate Verification accordingly. Without payment of Processing Fee and Slot Booking, the candidate is not permitted to attend for Certificate Verification. The candidate shall be permitted to attend for Certificate Verification only at the Help Line Center (HLC) booked as per the schedule.
Special category candidates i.e., (NCC) National Cadet Corps / (PHC) Physically Challenged / (CAP) Children of Armed Forces Personnel / Sports (SG)/ Anglo-Indian need to book Slot duly selecting the Help Line Center of GOVERNMENT POLYTECHNIC, MASAB TANK, HYDERABAD to attend for certificate verification as mentioned in Annexure – I, other certificates of these candidates will also be verified on the dates mentioned along with Special Reservation category Certificates.
CERTIFICATE VERIFICATION:
Candidate presence is mandatory for Certificate Verification Strictly as per the scheduled Slot Booking date and time at Help Line Center.
No entry for the candidates without mask.
Candidates must maintain social distancing.
The body temperature of candidate will be checked using Thermal Scanner before entering into the Help Line Center.
Candidate alone is permitted to enter into the Certificate Verification Hall.
Candidates are advised to bring their own water bottle.
Note: If any candidate is suffering with COVID-19 his/ her parent may seek the permission from the Convenor, TSEAMCET-2020 Admissions, Sankethika Vidya Bhavan, Masab Tank, Hyderabad duly filling the form placed in the website.
Certificates to be produced by the candidates at the time of Certificate Verification:
All original certificates and 1 set of Xerox copies of the following.
TSEAMCET -2020 Rank Card.
TSEAMCET -2020 Hall Ticket.
Aadhar Card.
S.S.C or its equivalent Marks memo.
Intermediate or its equivalent Memo-Cum-Pass Certificate.
VI to Intermediate or its Equivalent Study Certificates.
Transfer Certificate (T.C).
Income Certificate issued on or after 01-01-2020 by competent authority, if applicable.
Caste Certificate issued by competent authority, if applicable.
Residence Certificate of candidate for a period of 7 years preceding to qualifying examination in case where the candidate has no institutionalized education.
In respect of Non-Local candidates in order to consider them for allotment under unreserved seats the following certificates needs to be submitted.
Residence Certificate: Candidates who has resided in the State for a total period of 10 years excluding periods of study outside the State; or either of whose parents have resided in the State for a total period of 10 years excluding periods of employment outside the State.
(OR)
Employer Certificate : Candidates who are children of parents who are in the employment of this State or Central Government, Public Sector Corporations, Local bodies , Universities and other similar Quasi Public Institutions within the State at the time of applying for TSEAMCET -2020 Examination.
Certificates to be produced by PH / CAP / NCC / Sports (SG) / Minority / Anglo–Indian Candidates:
All original certificates and 2 sets of Xerox copies.
PH-Certificate issued by District Medical Board. Candidates with 40% and above disability are only eligible.
CAP (Children of Armed Forces Personnel): Candidates whose parents are domiciled in the State of Telangana based on the permanent address/home town declared by them while joining the service and as recorded in their Service Register are alone eligible to be considered under “CAP” Category.
CAP Certificate ( As per format attached at Appendix-A)
Retd Personnel: CAP Certificate Issued by Zilla Sainik Welfare Officer, Identity Card and Discharge Book.
Serving Personnel: Issued by Unit Commanding Officer (not less than the rank of Colonel/Commandant).
Certificate duly mentioning the permanent Home address declared at the time of Joining Armed Forces as recorded in the Service Register. As per format attached “ Appendix-B”
Retd Personnel: Records Office/ Service Head Quarters.
Serving Personnel: Original Service Register / Book along with an attested Xerox copy of the pages where permanent address at the time of Joining Armed Forces is mentioned
NCC – Certificates issued by competent authorities.
Sports (SG) – Sports Achievements / Testimonials along with the Form- I, II, III & IV duly certified / attested by the Concerned State Sports Associations recognized by the SATS which are categorized according to level of the Championships as laid down in G.O.Ms.No. 02, Youth Advancement, Tourism & Culture (Sports) Department, dated: 22-09-2020, which are essential during Scrutiny.
Minorities: SSC TC containing Minority Status or Certificate from the Head Master.
Anglo-Indian: A Certificate issued by Tahsildar of their place of Residence.
TUITION FEE TO BE PAID:
The Tuition Fee particulars and seats available under Convenor Quota College wise will be made available on the website https://tseamcet.nic.in well before the commencement of option entry.
The Fee reimbursement for eligible candidates is subject to the guidelines issued by the Government from time to time.
PROCEDURE FOR EXERCISING OPTIONS:
Immediately after Certificate Verification, the Login Id will be sent to the candidates registered Mobile Number. All the messages / OTPs / Allotment details etc., will be sent to the Registered Mobile Number, hence advised to keep the mobile with you till the end of admission process.
Download the list of colleges / branches / districts from the website https://tseamcet.nic.in
Take the printout of Manual Option Entry Form from the website.
Consult Parents / Friends and prepare Manual Option Entry Form as per your preference duly writing institution code, branch code and district code. This is for your convenience and to avoid mistakes and save time while entering web options.
The candidates can exercise options from Home / Internet Centre / Help Line Center (HLC).
If the candidate is exercising options from Internet Centre, make sure that proper logout is done after saving the options to avoid manipulation of the password by the Internet Centre person.
Generate the Password by clicking on Candidates Registration link in the website.
Do not share the password with others.
After successful password generation, Login with the details under the link Candidates Login and enter OTP as received in registered Mobile Number.
Refer the Manual Option Entry Form prepared by you and enter the options in the website.
Candidates are advised to exercise options carefully in the order of priority. The order of priority of options is the important criteria in securing the seat.
Candidate has to exercise as many options as possible to avoid disappointment of not getting aseat.
Candidate can exercise and modify the options any number of times within the scheduled dates.
Take a printout of final options saved for reference.
ALLOTMENT OF SEATS:
The provisional First Phase allotment of seats will be made on 22-10-2020 and will be placed in the website https://tseamcet.nic.in.
For downloading the candidate’s Provisional Allotment Order, enter the ROC Form Number, TSEAMCET Hall Ticket Number, Password and Date of Birth in Candidate login in https://tseamcet.nic.in .
Pay the Tuition Fee mentioned in the Provisional allotment order through online (Credit Card / Debit Card/ Net Banking ) within the prescribed time and self report through online system in candidates login and take admission number to confirm the provisionally allotted seat. Take the printout.
The candidates with zero Tuition Fee mentioned on provisional allotment order shall perform the self reporting within the prescribed time through online system in candidates login and take admission number to confirm the provisionally allotted seat. Take the printout.
Candidates / Parents are advised to make Tuition Fee payment from their own Bank Accounts. In case of refunds, if any, the amount will be remitted back through online in to the same Bank Account from which the payment was made.
If the candidate does not pay the prescribed Tuition Fee within the schedule mentioned, the provisional allotted seat automatically stands cancelled and he / she shall not have any claim on the provisionally allotted seat.
Follow the further instructions printed on the provisional allotment order.
The candidate at the time of self reporting shall give an undertaking through online that he / she will relinquish the admission through Degree Online Services Telangana (DOST), if any.
After first phase, if the candidate cancels admission through Online after payment of Tuition Fee and exercise options in subsequent phases if any, Tuition Fee paid earlier shall be considered for subsequent allotment of seat and forfeiture of amount will be applicable as mentioned below.
· If the candidate cancels his / her admission will forfeit the Tuition Fee paid as mentioned below.
After first phase, after payment of Tuition Fee, if the candidate cancels the provisionally allotted seat through online on or before the cut off date notified for cancellation in first phase as mentioned in allotment order, full Tuition Fee paid will be refunded.
100% after final phase in respect of Universitycolleges.
50% after final phase and before cut off date notified for cancellation as mentioned in allotment order and 100% there after in respect of Private Unaidedcolleges.
FINAL PHASE:
The eligible candidates can attend for Certificate Verification in Final Phase, if they have not attended earlier and can exercise options.
The candidates who have participated in First Phase Counselling can also exercise options using their old password, Login ID, for the leftover seats now available and consequential vacancies that may arise in the process of allotment as per the schedule mentioned above, and it is advised to exercise options for interested colleges only assuming that vacancies are available in the course of their choice.
Who can exercise options?
Candidates who have secured seat but not interested to join.
Who have not secured seat so far but got their certificates verified.
Who have not exercised the options so far but got their certificates verified.
Who have secured a seat, self reported and aspiring for a better option.
And any other eligible candidates.
NOTE:
Options given in the First Phase will not be considered for allotment and candidates have to exercise option afresh.
2. Candidates who are satisfied with their previous allotment and paid the Tuition Fee through online and self reported through website need not exercise options once again. However they have to report at the allotted college between 02-11-2020 and 05-11-2020 and register with Biometric for attendance at the college.
3. Candidates shall note that if they exercise options now and a seat is allotted as per the options, the vacated seat will be allotted to next meritorious candidate and hence they will have no claim on previous allotment.
PROCEDURE FOR EXERCISING OPTIONS AS MENTIONED ABOVE.
Candidate has to exercise as many options as possible to avoid disappointment of not getting aseat.
FINAL PHASE ALLOTMENT OF SEATS:
The provisional Final Phase allotment of seats for will be placed in the website https://tseamcet.nic.in on 02-11-2020.
For downloading the candidate’s Provisional allotment order, enter the ROC Form Number, Hall Ticket Number, Password and Date of Birth in candidate login in https://tseamcet.nic.in .
Pay the Tuition Fee mentioned in the Provisional allotment order through online (Net Banking / Credit Card / Debit Card) within the prescribed time. Self Report through website, report at the allotted college and register with Biometric for attendance in the college to confirm the provisionally allotted seat.
Candidates/ Parents are advised to make Tuition Fee payment from their own Bank Accounts. In case of refunds, if any, the amount will be remitted back through online into the same Bank Account from which the payment was made.
In candidate’s login, the candidate after Self Report through online system, the Admission Number will be generated. Take the printout and report at the finally allotted college on or before 05-11-2020 and register with Biometric for attendance at the college.
If the candidate does not pay the prescribed Tuition Fee within the schedule mentioned, the provisional allotted seat automatically stands cancelled and he / she shall not have any claim on the provisionally allotted seat.
Follow the further instructions printed on the provisional allotment order.
If the candidate cancels his/her admission will forfeit the Tuition Fee paid as mentioned above.
SPOT ADMISSIONS:
The Spot Admission guidelines to B.E /B.Tech / Pharmacy Courses in Private Unaided Engineering and B Pharmacy Colleges will be placed in the website https://tseamcet.nic.in on 04-11-2020.
Written by Ranker Admin, October 12th, 2020 | No Comments »
The Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced) 2020 [JEE (Advanced) 2020] will be conducted by the seven Zonal Coordinating (ZC) IITs under the guidance of the Joint Admission Board (JAB) 2020. The performance of a candidate in JEE (Advanced) 2020 will form the basis for admission to the Bachelor’s, Integrated Master’s and Dual Degree programs (entry at the 10+2 level) in all the IITs in the academic year 2020-21. The decisions of the JAB 2020 will be final in all matters related to JEE (Advanced) 2020 and admission to IITs in the academic year 2020-21.
SCHEDULE OF JEE (ADVANCED) 2020
The examination consists of two papers (Paper 1 and Paper 2) of three hours duration each. Both the papers are compulsory. The examination will be held as per the following schedule:
Date of Examination
Sunday, September 27, 2020
Paper 1
09:00 IST to 12:00 IST
Paper 2
14:30 IST to 17:30 IST
It may be noted that the schedule will remain the same even if September 27, 2020 is declared a public holiday. All PwD candidates are eligible for one hour compensatory time, i.e., the end time will be 13:00 IST for Paper 1 and 18:30 IST for Paper 2.
JEE (MAIN) 2020
Indian nationals who wish to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2020 must write B.E./B.Tech. paper of JEE (Main) 2020 which was/will be held in the month of January 2020 and September 2020. Further information about JEE (Main) 2020 may be obtained from the website https://jeemain.nta.nic.in.
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR INDIAN NATIONALS FOR APPEARING IN JEE (ADVANCED) 2020
All the candidates must simultaneously fulfil each and every one of the following five criteria to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2020.
Criterion 1 – Performance in JEE (Main) 2020: Candidates should be among the top 2,50,000* successful candidates (including all categories) in B.E./B.Tech. Paper of JEE (Main) 2020.
The percentages of various categories of candidates to be shortlisted are: 10% for GEN-EWS, 27% for OBC-NCL, 15% for SC, 7.5% for ST and the remaining 40.5% is OPEN for all. Within each of these five categories, 5% horizontal reservation is available for PwD candidates.
The following table shows the order to be followed while choosing top 2,50,000*candidates in various categories based on the performance in B.E./B.Tech. Paper of JEE (Main) 2020.
Category-wise distribution of top 2,50,000* candidates (Criterion 1)
Order
Category
Number of “Top” candidates
1
OPEN
96187
101250
2
OPEN-PwD
5063
3
GEN-EWS
23750
25000
4
GEN-EWS-PwD
1250
5
OBC-NCL
64125
67500
6
OBC-NCL-PwD
3375
7
SC
35625
37500
8
SC-PwD
1875
9
ST
17812
18750
10
ST-PwD
938
*The total number of candidates can be slightly greater than 2,50,000 in the presence of “tied” ranks/scores in any category.
Criterion 2 – Age limit: Candidates should have been born on or after October 1,1995. Five years relaxation is given to SC, ST and PwD candidates, i.e., these candidates should have been born on or after October 1, 1990.
Criterion 3 – Number of attempts: A candidate can attempt JEE (Advanced) maximum of two times in two consecutive years.
Criterion 4 – Appearance in Class XII (or equivalent) examination: A candidate should have appeared for the Class XII (or equivalent) examination for the first time in either 2019 or 2020 with Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics as compulsory subjects.
However, if the examination Board of Class XII (or equivalent) declares the results for the academic year 2017-18 after June 2018, then the candidates of that board who appeared for their Class XII exam in 2018 are also eligible to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2020, provided they meet the other eligibility criteria. In case, the examination Board of Class XII (or equivalent) declared the results for the academic year 2017-18 before June 2018 but the result of a particular candidate was withheld, then the candidate will not be eligible to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2020.
Criterion 5 – Earlier admission at IITs: A candidate should NOT have been admitted in an IIT irrespective of whether or not he/she continued in the program OR accepted an IIT seat by reporting at a reporting centre in the past. Candidates whose admission at IITs was cancelled after joining any IIT are also NOT eligible to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2020.
Candidates who have been admitted to a preparatory course in any of the IITs for the first time in 2019 can appear in JEE (Advanced) 2020.
The candidates who paid seat acceptance fee in 2019 but (i) did not report at any reporting centre OR, (ii) withdrew before the last round of seat allotment, OR, (iii) had their seat cancelled (for whatever reason) before the last round of seat allotment for IITs, during the joint seat allocation in 2019, are eligible to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2020.
However, in all of the above cases, the candidate is also required to fulfil the conditions mentioned from Criterion 1 to Criterion 4.
Information for Foreign Candidates
1. Who can apply as foreign nationals?
Candidates who are NOT citizens of India (by birth or naturalized) and have studied (are studying) abroad at 10+2 level or equivalent at the time of registering for JEE(Advanced) 2020, are treated as foreign nationals. Seats allotted to foreign nationals are supernumerary with a cap of 10% of total number of seats in every course.
Foreign nationals are outside the ambit of reservation of seats under the GEN-EWS, OBC-NCL, SC, ST and PwD (Persons with Disability) categories as mandated by Govt. of India.
These candidates are not required to write JEE(Main) 2020 and may register for JEE(Advanced) 2020 directly subject to fulfilment of other eligibility criteria.
Identity Proof: Identity proof of the candidate is required in the form of citizenship certificate/Passport.
2. Registration fee for JEE (Advanced) 2020
All foreign candidates who desire to appear for JEE (Advanced) 2020 have to register online through the JEE (Advanced) 2020 website, https://jeeadv.ac.in. The registration fee for JEE (Advanced) 2020 applicable to foreign nationals is given in the following table.
JEE (Advanced) 2020 will be held ONLY in cities in India.
Registration Fee for Examination Centres in India
Foreign Nationals
Candidates from SAARC countries
USD 75
Foreign Nationals
Candidates from Non-SAARC countries
USD 150
The registration fee shown above DOES NOT INCLUDE service charges, processing fees and any other charges that the banks may levy.
Detailed instructions related to the payment of registration fee will be given on the online registration portal.
3. Eligibility Criteria for appearing in JEE (Advanced) 2020
All foreign candidates must fulfil each and every one of the following four criteria to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2020.
Criterion 1 – Age limit: Candidates should have been born on or after October 1, 1995. In countries where a minimum stint in the armed forces (or allied) for a certain period is mandatory before/after Class XII (or equivalent) exam, the candidate will be given a relaxation of required number of years. In such cases, the candidate is required to upload a certificate/testimonial issued by competent authority to this effect at the time of registration.
Criterion 2 – Number of attempts: A candidate can attempt JEE (Advanced) a maximum of two times in consecutive years.
Criterion 3 – Appearance in Class XII (or equivalent) examination: A candidate should have appeared for the Class XII (or equivalent) examination for the first time in either 2019 or 2020 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics as compulsory subjects.
However, if the examination Board of Class XII (or equivalent) declares the results for the academic year 2017-18 after June 2018, then the candidates of that board who appeared for their class XII exam in 2018 are also eligible to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2020, provided they meet the other eligibility criteria. In case, the examination Board of Class XII (or equivalent) declared the results for the academic year 2017-18 before June 2018 but the result of a particular candidate was withheld, then the candidate will not be eligible to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2020.
Criterion 4 – Earlier admission at IITs: A candidate should NOT have been admitted in an IIT irrespective of whether or not he/she continued in the program OR accepted an IIT seat by reporting at a reporting centre in the past. Candidates whose admission at IITs was cancelled after joining any IIT are also NOT eligible to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2020.
The candidates who paid seat acceptance fee in 2019 but (i) did not report at any reporting centre OR, (ii) withdrew before the last round of seat allotment, OR, (iii) had their seat cancelled (for whatever reason) before the last round of seat allotment for IITs, during the joint seat allocation in 2019, are eligible to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2020. However, in any of the above cases, the candidate is required to fulfil the conditions mentioned from Criterion 1 to Criterion 3.
4. Performance in Class XII (or equivalent) examination Candidates must PASS class XII exam with the following subjects:
Physics
Chemistry
Mathematics
A language
Any subject other than the above four
5.Documents required for registration
Birth certificate for age proof
Class XII passing certificate
Identity proof
Citizenship certificate/Passport
Testimonial (if required)
6. Architecture Aptitude Test (AAT) for B.Arch. Program
The IITs conducting AAT are listed in the Information Brochure. Successful foreign candidates, if interested in B. Arch. Program, are required to come to one of these IITs to write the Architecture aptitude test for B.Arch. Program.
Registration Fee
Indian Nationals
Female Candidates (all categories)
INR 1400
Indian Nationals
SC, ST, PwD Candidates
INR 1400
Indian Nationals
All Other Candidates
INR 2800
Foreign Nationals
Candidates from SAARC countries
USD 75
Foreign Nationals
Candidates from Non-SAARC countries
USD 150
The registration fee shown above DOES NOT INCLUDE service charges, processing fees and any other charges that the payment gateway/banks may levy.
Detailed instructions related to the payment of registration fee will be provided at the time of JEE (Advanced) 2020 registration on the online registration portal.
Services of Scribe
The services of a scribe (amanuensis) are available ONLY to those PwD candidates who are visually impaired OR dyslexic (severe) OR have disability in the upper limbs or have lost fingers / hands thereby preventing them from properly operating the Computer Based Test platform as per office memorandum of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment F.No. 34-02/2015-DD-III dated August 29, 2018. PwD candidates who desire to avail the services of a scribe need to opt for this during the online registration of JEE (Advanced) 2020.
To avail the services of scribe, the candidate should request the Chairman, JEE (Advanced) 2020, of the respective zonal coordinating IIT in the prescribed format (FORM-SCRIBE). The requisition, along with a copy of the PwD certificate (FORM-PwD [II/III/IV, whichever is applicable]) OR copy of the certificates of Dyslexic candidate (FORM- DYSLEXIC 1 and DYSLEXIC 2), whichever is applicable, must be uploaded at the time of online registration for JEE (Advanced) 2020. The formats for the request letter and PwD/Dyslexic certificate are given in Annexure-II: CERTIFICATE FORMATS.
Zonal coordinating IITs will make arrangements, through the Centre Head (CH)/Deputy Centre Head (DCH) of the Examination Centre, to provide a panel of scribes (amanuenses). Scribes will be students of Class XI from the science stream with Mathematics as one of the subject. The PwD/dyslexic (severe) candidate has to choose a scribe from this panel. The candidates will NOT be allowed to bring their own scribes.
The candidate will be allowed to meet the panel of scribes one day prior to the examination i.e., on Saturday, September 26, 2020, in the presence of the IIT Representatives (IRs), Centre Head/Deputy Centre Head (CH/DCH) and an Invigilator, and choose her/his scribe.
If it is found at any stage that a candidate has used the services of a scribe but does not possess the extent of disability that warrants the use of a scribe, she/he will be excluded from the process of evaluation, ranking and admission. In case such a candidate has already been admitted to any IIT, her/his admission will be cancelled.
Important Dates for Candidates
S. No.
Activity
Date [dd-mm-yyyy]/Time
1.
JEE (Main) 2020 [Computer Based Test by NTA]
06-01-2020 to 11-01-2020 & 01-09-2020 to 06-09-2020
2.
Declaration of JEE (Main) 2020 Results
By 31-01-2020 & By 11-09-2020 (tentative)
3.
JEE (Advanced) 2020
SUN, 27-09-2020 Paper 1 : 09:00 – 12:00 IST Paper 2 : 14:30 – 17:30 IST
4.
Declaration of JEE (Advanced) 2020 Results
MON, 05-10-2020
5.
Architecture Aptitude Test (AAT)
THU, 08-10-2020
6.
Declaration of AAT results
SUN, 11-10-2020
7.
Tentative Start of Seat Allocation Process
TUE, 06-10-2020
8.
Tentative End of Seat Allocation Process
MON, 09-11-2020
Written by Ranker Admin, September 15th, 2020 | No Comments »
In terms of G.O.Ms. No.26, Higher Education (H.E.II) Department, dated 24-3-2004 and G.O.Ms. No.52, Higher Education (UE-II) Department, dated 20-6-2007 and their amendments, issued by the Government of Andhra Pradesh, the competent authority, Chairman, APSCHE has entrusted the job of conducting the entrance tests APLAWCET and APPGLCET for admission into first year of 5-year LL.B / 3-year LL.B and first year of Postgraduate Law courses LL.M / M.L respectively to Sri Krishna devaraya University, Ananthapuramu, Andhra Pradesh.
3 Year/ 5 Year LL.B Courses (APLAWCET) Registration fee Rs.750/-
Post graduate Law courses LL.M (APPGLCET) Registration fee Rs.850/-
Activity
Date & Time
Notification of AP LAWCET & PGLCET – 2020
10-03-2020
Commencement of Submission of Online application forms
11-03-2020
Last date for submission of online applications without late fee
10-04-2020
Last date for submission of online applications with late fee of Rs. 500/-
19-04-2020
Last Date for Submission of Application with a Late fee of Rs.1000/-
28-04-2020
Last Date for Submission of Application with a Late fee of Rs.2000/-
30-04-2020
Correction of online application data already submitted by the candidate
20-04-2020 to 21-04-2020
Downloading of Hall-tickets from the website http://www.sche.ap.gov.in/lawcet
03-05-2020 onwards
Date of AP LAWCET & PGLCET – 2020 Examination
08-05-2020
Time of Examination
11-00 am to 12-30 pm
ELIGIBILITY FOR AP LAWCET–2020 & AP PGLCET-2020
3 year LL.B Course:
The Candidates for 3 year LL.B. should have passed any Graduate Degree (10+2+3 pattern) of a recognized University with 45% of aggregate marks or any other examination recognized as equivalent by the Universities concerned. If any candidate secured less than 45% in graduation he should have passed any additional graduate or postgraduate degree with 45% aggregate marks
5 Year LL.B. Course:
The Candidates for 5 year LL.B. should have passed two year Intermediate Examination (10+2 pattern) with 45% of aggregate marks or any other examination recognized as equivalent by the University concerned or the Board of Intermediate Education, A.P.
Note: There is a relaxation of 5% of marks in the above qualifying examinations for 3 year / 5 year Law course in favour of the candidates belonging to SC / ST and relaxation of 3% of marks for candidates belonging to other backward classes.
2 Year LL.M. Course:
Candidates holding LL.B./B.L. degree on the date of application and candidates who have appeared/appearing for LL.B./B.L. Final year examination are also eligible. A candidate appearing for LLB/BL degree examinations may take the AP PGLCET in anticipation of results. However the candidate shall have passed the qualifying examination with 50% marks in aggregate (for OC) and 45% marks in aggregate (for BC/SC/ST) at the time of counseling.
ELIGIBILITY
3-YEAR LLB
5-YEAR LLB
LLM
For OC Candidates
Degree/PG with minimum 45% marks
Intermediate with minimum 45% marks
B.L./LLB degree with minimum 50% marks
For BC Candidates
Degree/PG with minimum 42% marks
Intermediate with minimum 42% marks
B.L./LLB degree with minimum 45% marks
For SC/ST Candidates
Degree/PG with minimum 40% marks
Intermediate with minimum 40% Marks
B.L./LLB degree with minimum 45% marks
Note:
1) Mere appearance in AP LAWCET / AP PGLCET will not give any right of admission. The candidate shall satisfy all the eligibility criteria and should satisfy rules governing admission as are applicable at the time of admission.
2.) The applicants who have obtained 10+2 or graduation / post graduation through single sitting system directly without having any basic qualification for prosecuting such studies are not eligible for admission into the law courses.
3) Age on admission into law courses is subject to the rule position in vogue at the time of admission.
4) Nationality and Domicile: The candidate should be an Indian National and should satisfy Local / non-local s t a t u s requirement as laid down in the Andhra Pradesh Educational Institutions (Regulation of Admissions) Order, 1974 and the amendments made thereto from time to time.
Centers of Entrance Test (APLAWCET/APPGLCET):
S.No
Center
1
Anantapuramu
2
Chittoor
3
Tirupathi
4
Kadapa
5
Kurnool
6
Nandyal
7
Nellore
8
Ongole
9
Guntur
10
Vijayawada
11
Bhimavaram
12
Kakinada
13
Rajamahendravaram
14
Visakhapatnam
15
Vizianagaram
16
Srikakulam
However, Convener reserves the right to allot candidates to any other center(s) in unavoidable circumstances.
Medium of Entrance Test: The APLAWCET will be conducted in English and Telugu versions and APPGLCET question paper will be in English only.
Test Paper Information:
AP LAWCET:
The Test is designed to evaluate the candidate’s General Knowledge, Mental ability, current affairs and aptitude to pursue the study of Law. The Test consists of three parts. Total number of questions will be 120 and the duration of test is 90 minutes. Maximum marks are 120.
Part – A: Consists of 30 questions carrying 30 marks: General Knowledge and Mental Ability
Part – B: Consists of 30 questions carrying 30 marks: Current Affairs Part – C: Consists of 60 questions carrying 60 marks: Aptitude for the Study of Law. In the questions in
Part – C: Aptitude for the study of Law, elementary knowledge of the basic principles of the Law and Constitution of India on the part of the Student is assumed
For 5 year Law Course, the standard expected is of Intermediate level and for 3 year Law Course, the standard expected is of Degree Level.
AP PGLCET:
A Single entrance test is conducted for all the courses of LL.M. It is of 90 minutes duration and consists of 120 questions of 1 mark each. Part-A consists of 40 questions (Jurisprudence 20, Constitutional Law 20; Total 40 questions of 1 mark each); and Part -B consists of 80 questions (public International Law 16,Mercantile Law 16, Labour Law 16, Crimes and Torts 16, and IPR & Other Laws 16).. The Questions will be objective type including multiple choices questions, matching items. Each Question contains four alternative answers and candidates have to pick up the correct answer from among the choices given.
Qualifying marks in AP LAWCET-2020:
The qualifying percentage of marks in the Entrance Test is 35% (i.e. 42 marks out of total 120 marks). There will be no minimum qualifying marks for S.Cs & S.Ts for ranking.
Qualifying marks in AP PGLCET-2020:
The qualifying percentage of marks in the Entrance Test is 25%. (i.e. 30 marks out of total 120 marks). There will be no qualifying marks for S.Cs & S.Ts for ranking.
AP LAWCET-2020 Results:
a. Evaluation: Every care will be taken to avoid errors in evaluation, checking, scrutiny, tabulation and ranking. Hence, request for retotalling or revaluation or personal identification of scripts will not be entertained.
b. Ranking: The Candidates will be ranked in the order of merit based on the marks obtained in the AP LAWCET-2020 / AP PGLCET-2020. In case of tie the relative rank will be decided as mentioned below:
i) By considering the marks secured in Part-C of AP LAWCET and if the tie still persists marks obtained in Part-B in AP LAWCET shall be taken into consideration.
ii) If the tie still persists they may be bracketed together for the purpose of ranking and seniority in age may be considered at the time of admission.
c. Rank obtained in AP LAWCET-2020 is valid for admission into 3 year / 5 year Law Courses, as the case may be, for the academic year 2020-2021 only.
AP PGLCET-2020 Results:
a) Evaluation: Every care will be taken to avoid errors in evaluation, checking, scrutiny, tabulation and ranking.
b) Ranking: The Candidates will be ranked as per the total marks obtained in the Entrance Test. If there is a tie in total marks, the marks obtained in Part-A of Entrance Test will be considered for awarding the rank. If the tie persists they may be bracketed together for the purpose of ranking and seniority in age may be considered at the time of admission.
d. The Candidates are advised to download the Rank Card from the web site https://sche.sp.gov.in/lawcet after one week of the publication of results. In case of the any difficulty in downloading the Rank Card the candidates are advised to contact the Convener’s office.
SYLLABUS FOR AP PGLCET – 2020
The candidates should be thorough in jurisprudence, constitutional law, Public International law, mercantile law, labour laws, crimes and torts, IPR & other laws. However concentration should be on the following. Part-A: 40 Questions ….. 40 marks
I) JURISPRUDENCE: 20Questions …20 marks Schools of Jurisprudence – Sources of Law, Custom Precedent and Legislation, Rights and duties – Ownership and Possession, Persons, Obligation, Property, Liability, Legal Sanctions.
II) CONSTITUTIONAL LAW: 20Questions …20 marks Nature of the constitution: Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, Executive, Judiciary and Legislature, Center-State Relations, Emergency provisions, Amendments to the constitution. Part-B: 80 Questions ….. 80 marks
III) PUBLIC INTERNATIONAL LAW: 16Questions … 16 marks International Law and Municipal Law, Subjects, State Territory, Air, Sea and outer space, Nationality and Statelessness, Extradition, Asylum, State Jurisdiction, United Nations.
IV) MERCANTILE LAW: 16Questions … 16 marks General Principles of Contract (Sections. 1-75, Indian Contract Act-1872).
V) LABOUR LAW: 16Questions … 16 marks Trade Union Act 1926. Industrial Disputes Act 1947.
VI) CRIMES and TORTS: CRIMES: 16Questions … 16 marks
Indian Penal Code -General Principles & General Exceptions. TORTS: General principles of Tort, , Defences, Joint liability,
State liability for torts; Consumer Protection Act,1986
VII) IPR & OTHER LAWS: 16Questions … 16 marks
Copy right Act, 1957; Patents Act, 2005; Environmental Protection Act, 1986; Human Rights,The Protection of Human Rights
Act, 1993, Salient features of Information Technology Act, 2000 and Right to Information Act 2005
X. GENERAL INFORMATION / INSTRUCTIONS:
1. The Convener or/and the Common Entrance Test Committee reserve the right to reject the application of a candidate at any stage, if.a) the application is incomplete. b) the candidate fails to satisfy the prescribed eligibility conditions. c) false or incorrect information is furnished.
2. Candidate shall with utmost precaution choose the appropriate test 3-year / 5-year / LLM based on his qualification. Convener, APLAWCET-2019 is not responsible for wrong selection of the entrance test paper to be attempted.
3. Any change whatsoever, including that of caste/community status or category, shall not be permitted to be made in the filled in application once it is submitted to the Convener. No correspondence will be entertained in this regard
4. The Convener is not responsible for the non – submission of application by the notified date and time for any reason whatsoever.
5. The Candidate should preserve the hall ticket to produce it at the time of test and later at the time of entry into the course.
6. Applicants should download hall tickets from website https://sche.ap.gov.in/lawcet only.
7. The appearance at AP LAWCET – 2020 does not entitle any candidate to be considered for entry into the course automatically.
8 The rank obtained with the benefit of relaxation of minimum qualifying marks at the APLAWCET-2020 by any candidate, claiming to belong to SC/ST category, will be cancelled in case the claim is found to be invalid later or at any point of time.
9. The selection of candidates and allotment to colleges will be on the basis of rank obtained at the Common Entrance Test and other conditions laid down.
10. Candidate will not be permitted into the exam hall after the scheduled time on the date of entrance test.
11. In any litigation, the party to be impleaded shall be the Convener of the APLAWCET2020 only and this shall be subject to the jurisdiction of High Court of A.P.
12. Candidates are advised to practise the mock tests placed in the website and familiarize with the mode of attempting the online test.
1. For any queries related to AP LAWCET 2020 you may send an e-mail to lawcet.convener2020@gmail.com
2. For any corrections related to Category-1 and Category-2 in the Filled in Online Application Form, the candidates have to STRICTLY follow the procedure as given below:
CORRECTIONS IN THE AP LAWCET 2020 FILLED IN ONLINE APPLICATION FORM
CATEGORY 1
Items that CANNOT be CHANGED by the Candidate, but written request can be made to the CONVENER,APLAWCET2020 through e-mail with valid scanned documents to lawcet.convener2020@gmail.com. While sending the request for corrections, the candidates have to clearly mention Payment ID, Qualifying Exam HT Number (Diploma/Degree), Mobile Number, Date of Birth and SSC HT Number.
ISSUE/CORRECTION
SCANNED DOCUMENTS TO BE SENT
AP LAWCET 2020 Branch change
Qualifying Examination Hall Ticket (Diploma/Degree)
Name of the Candidate
SSC Mark Memo
Father’s Name
SSC Mark Memo
Date of Birth (as per SSC or Equivalent)
SSC Mark Memo
Signature
Scanned Signature
Photograph
Correct Photograph in required jpeg format
Qualifying Hall Ticket Number
(Diploma/Degree)
Scanned Copy of Qualifying Examination Hall Ticket (Diploma/Degree)
CATEGORY 2
Items that canbe CHANGED by the Candidate during the permitted period (20.04.2020 to 21.04.2020)
Qualifying
Examination
Local Area Status
Qualifying Exam Year of Appearing /
Passing
Non Minority / Minority
Medium of Instruction in Qualifying Exam
Annual Income of the Parents
Place of Study
STUDY DETAILS
Mother’ s Name
SSC Hall Ticket Number
Birth State, Birth District
Gender
Community
Address for Correspondence
Mobile Number
E-mail id
Special Category
Aadhaar Card details
NOTE
1) Corrections related to CATEGORY-1 items will be done at CONVENER, AP LAWCET-2020 Office, subject to thorough Verification of the Valid Documents and Approval bythe Committee.
2) Corrections related to CATEGORY-2 in the Filled in Online Application Form should be done by the candidateduringthepermittedperiod(20.04.2020 to 21.04.2020)only.Thesecorrectionswillnotbe entertained in any form at Test Centers or CONVENER, AP LAWCET-2020 office.
Written by Ranker Admin, March 14th, 2020 | No Comments »
Last Date of Successful Transaction of
Fee through Credit/Debit Card/Net-Banking up to 11:59 pm
23rd March 2020
Fee Payable by candidates in INR
OPENMAT XLVII- UR,
OBC category
Rs. 800/-
SC, ST, EWS
Rs. 600/-
Correction in Particulars of Application
Form on Website only
28-29 March 2020
Downloading of Admit Cards from NTA
website
09th April, 2020 onwards
Dates of Examination
29th April, 2020
Duration of Examination
03 Hours
Timing of Examination
09:30-12:30 Hrs
Centre of Examination
As indicated on the Admit Card
Website
https://ignouexams.nta.nic.in.
1. Candidates can apply for IGNOU OPENMAT-XLVII “Online” only on the website https://ignouexams.nta.nic.in.
2. Online Application Form may be submitted by accessing NTA website https://ignouexams.nta.nic.in. The Application Form other than online mode will not be accepted, in any case.
3. Before filling the online entrance form, please read carefully regarding the eligibility and programme details given in e-prospectus available at https://ignouexams.nta.nic.in.
4. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as given in the Information Bulletin and on NTA website https://ignouexams.nta.nic.in. Candidates not complying with the instructions shall be summarily disqualified.
5. Candidates must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number provided in the Online Application Form are of their own, as all information/ communication will be sent by NTA through e-mail on the given e-mail address or SMS on the given mobile number only.
Candidate’s
Photograph
File size must be between 10 kb to 200 kb.
Candidate’s Signature in running hand
File size must be between 4 kb to 30 kb.
ABOUT THE MANAGEMENT PROGRAMME OF IGNOU
The Management Programme (MP) of Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) has been designed with the aim to offer quality flexible education at the doorstep of the learners. It focuses on catering to the needs of the specific target groups. The programme is offered to provide developmental avenue for students, working personnel and professional for acquiring management qualifications to upgrade and refine their management skills, capabilities and orientation.
Admission shall be done on the basis of the score obtained in the on-line entrance test conducted by NTA. After qualifying in the OPENMAT, a learner will have to apply for admission on the specified APPLICATION FORM which is given in the e-Prospectus, available on the university website, www.ignou.ac.in
Incomplete and late application forms will be summarily rejected without referring to the candidate. Application Form for Admission to Management Programme is submitted only at the time of first entry to the programme and subsequent continuation in the programme will be through RE-REGISTRATION FORMS, which is through online mode.
(1) Duration:
The minimum duration of the programme is two years. However, the maximum period allowed for completion of the programme is five years.
(2) Medium of Instruction: English
(3) Programme Fee:
Fees are charged course wise which is Rs.2,000/- per course. Master of Business Administration (MBA) Programme consists of 21 courses in all. Project Course (MS-100) is equivalent to 2 courses.
(4) Programme Structure:
The MBA Programme consists of 21 courses in all. These comprise of:
All the courses from MS-1 to MS-11.
Five courses from any one of the specialization streams.
Two Compulsory Courses (MS- 91, MS-95) and any one elective course out of MS 92/93/94/96/97.
Project Course (MS-100) equivalent to 2 courses.
IGNOU follows a modular approach in its programme offering viz., if a student takes admission into MBA and for some reason or the other is not able to complete all the courses s/he is provided with exit point. If s/he completes 6 courses in a particular specialization along with the compulsory basic course s/he would be awarded Post Graduate Diploma in that particular specialization.
(5) Eligibility Criteria and Qualifications:
The eligibility criteria for admission to MBA programme is as follows:
Any graduate (including Chartered Accountancy/Cost Accountancy/Company Secretaryship) with 50% marks for general category/45% for reserved category as per government of India rules. (In case of grading system, students should ensure that his/her CGPA should meet the eligibility percentage requirement).
Clearance of OPENMAT entrance test of IGNOU conducted by National Testing Agency (NTA).
There is no age limit for seeking admission to this programme.
(6) Reservation:
The University provides reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, non-creamy layer of OBC, War Widows, Kashmri Migrants and Physically Handicapped Learners, as per the Government of India rules, for admission to its various programmes. However, submission of forged certificate under any category shall lead not only to cancellation of admission but also be legally implicated as per Govt. of India rules.
(7) Scheme of Examination:
1.The OPENMAT Entrance Exam consists of four tests (Sections). They are:
Test 1 comprises of 30 questions of General Awareness,
Test II consists of 50 questions of English language,
Test III is of Quantitative Aptitude which consists of 50 questions, and
Test IV is of Reasoning consisting of 70 questions.
2. All these tests will be conducted in one session of 3 hours. The total number of questions for all the four tests is 200 and each question carries 1 mark. There is no negative marking for wrong answers.
3.Sample OPENMAT Entrance test paper is available in e-prospectus to familiarize students with the examination scheme and type of questions. E-Prospectus can be down loaded from IGNOU or NTA website
4.Calculators, cell phones, books, slide-rules, notebooks or any other written notes will not be allowed inside the examination hall.
Registration and Application Process:
In order to appear in IGNOU OPENMAT XLVII, the candidates are required to apply online as per procedure detailed below. The Application Form other than online mode will not be accepted. Before filling and submitting the online form, candidates should download the Information Bulletin and e-Prospectus and read them carefully. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as given in the Information Bulletin and on NTA website. Application Forms not complying with the instructions are liable to be rejected.
The candidates are advised to ensure the following points before filling the Online Application Forms:
(i) The candidates shall ensure their eligibility to appear in the test.
(ii) The Candidate must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number provided in the Online Application Form are of their own (which cannot be changed later) as communication may be sent by NTA through email or SMS.
(iii) The Candidate should not give the postal address, Mobile Number or e-mail ID of Coaching Centre in the Online Application Form.
(iv) Online submission of application may be done by accessing the NTA official website: https://ignouexams.nta.nic.in.
(v) Online Application Form cannot be withdrawn once it is submitted successfully.
(vi) Application Form of candidates who do not fulfill the eligibility criteria shall be rejected.
(vii) A candidate is allowed to submit only one Application Form. If a candidate submits more than one Application Form, the candidature is likely to be cancelled.
(viii) Request for change in any particular in the Application Form shall not be entertained under any circumstances. (Note: However, a chance may be given to the candidates to correct/modify/edit some of the particular(s) of the application form online only, during 28th -29th March, 2020).
(ix) The Centres (Cities) indicated for the entrance examination by a candidate is only an option. The actual Centre shall be allotted by NTA and it shall be final. No correspondence in this regard shall be entertained. It is mandatory for candidates to fill all four choices as options.
Steps to Complete the Application Process: Application Form may be submitted in the following four simple steps:
Step I
Registration for online application and
note down the system generated Application number for future Reference
Step II
Filling Online Application Form
Step III
Upload scanned images of Candidate’s Photograph (between 10 kb – 200 kb)
and Candidate’s Signature (between 4 kb – 30kb) in JPG/JPEG format.
Step IV
Make payment of fee using suitable mode of payment as per details given
in this section and keep proof of fee paid.
Note:
1. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step-3 and Step-4 are not completed. Such forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be entertained.
2. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA under any circumstances.
3. There is no provision to upload any certificate/marks sheet etc., with the application.
4. The entire application process is online. Therefore, candidates are not required to send/submit any document(s) including Confirmation Page to NTA through Post/ Fax/By Hand.
Before beginning the process of filling the Online Application Form, please keep the following information ready with you:
Govt. Identity Details like Aadhaar Number (last 4 digits)/Election Card (EPIC No.)/Passport number/Ration Card Number/ PAN Number/ Other valid Government identity proofs.
Address for communication, Mobile Number, email id, etc.
Scanned images of latest Photograph (size of 10 kb to 200 kb) in JPG/ JPEG format only
Scanned image of Signature (size of 4 kb to 30 kb) in JPG/ JPEG format only
Bank details for payment of Fee, for uploading as part of submission of online application.
Copy of Board/ University Certificate for Candidate’s Name, Mother’s Name, Father’s Name and Date of Birth
Step I: Registration for Online Application:
Fill in the basic information and note down the system generated Application Number
Candidate’s Name/ Mother’s Name/ Father’s Name: Provide Candidate’s Name, Mother’s Name, Father’s Name as given in the Secondary School Examination or equivalent Board/ University Certificate.
Date of Birth: Provide Candidate’s date of birth as recorded in Secondary School Examination or equivalent Board/ University certificate in ‘dd/mm/yyyy’ format.
Mobile Number and e-mail Address: Candidates must provide own Mobile Number and e-mail address. (Please note only one e-mail address and one Mobile Number are valid for one application)
Step II: Filling the Online Application Form:
Other Backward Classes (OBC)- Non Creamy Layer as per the Central list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website (www.ncbc.nic.in). Thus, the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose ‘General’.
Provide complete postal address with PIN Code (Mailing Address as well as Permanent Address).
Choice of Cities for Examination Centres: The candidate should select any four cities of their choice for examination centre of IGNOU OPENMAT XLVII from the drop down menu.
Under no circumstances the choice of cities for Test Centre filled in the Application Form will be changed.
Step III: Uploading the Scanned Images & Selection of Test Centre:
(a) Uploading the Candidate’s Photograph:
Passport size photograph is to be used for uploading on Online Application Form and also for pasting on Attendance Sheet at the examination centre.
The candidate should scan his/her passport size photograph for uploading. File size must be between 10 kb to 200 kb.
The photograph must be taken on or after 7 th February, 2020 indicating clearly the name of candidate along with the date of taking the photograph. Photograph should not be with cap or goggles.
Spectacles are allowed if being used regularly.
Polaroid and Computer generated photos are not acceptable.
Applications not complying with these instructions or with unclear photographs are liable to be rejected.
Candidates may please note that if it is found that photograph uploaded is fabricated i.e. deshaped or seems to be hand-made or computer made, the form of the candidate will be rejected and the same would be considered as using unfair means and the candidate would be dealt with accordingly.
Application without photograph shall be rejected. The photograph need not be attested. Candidates are advised to take 6 to 8 passport size colour photographs with white background.
(b) Uploading Candidate’s Signature:
The candidates are required to upload the full signature in running hand writing in the appropriate box given in the Online Application Form. Writing full name in the Box in Capital letters would not be accepted as “signature” and the Application Form would be rejected. Further, unsigned Online Application Forms will also be rejected.
The candidate should put his full signature on white paper with Black Ink pen and scan for uploading. File size must be between 4 kb to 30kb.
(Note: Candidate must ensure that the uploaded images are clear and proper.)
(c) Cities for Examination Centres:
A list of States and Cities for OPENMAT XLVII Examination is given in the following Annexure–I.
While applying, candidates must select four Examination City Centres in order of their preference. Since the seating capacity at each centre is limited, they will be considered for the allotment of the examination city centres as per NTA norms.
NTA can change the examination city centre opted by the candidate to another nearby centre, if number of candidates are more/less at any examination city centre.
The Examination City Centre, once opted, shall not be changed.
The Admit Card will be uploaded on NTA website https://ignouexams.nta.nic.in. Please check the admit card carefully for your Name, Subject Group, Date of Birth, Gender, Examination Centre Name, City, and Category, etc.
In case of any problem related to Admit card, please contact the given helpline numbers 0120- 6895200 between 09:00 am to 6:00pm.
Stage IV: Payment of Fee
Fee Payable by candidates
OPENMAT XLVII- UR,
OBC category
Rs.800/-
SC, ST, EWS
Rs.600/-
Method of Fee Payment
After completing Step 3 of online Application Form, candidates may remit the examination fee (Step 4) by choosing the following options:
1. Through Debit/Credit card – Candidates need to check the validity of the Debit/Credit Card, while logging on to website for submitting Application Form. Candidate should enter the information asked for and make the required payment through Debit/Credit Card.
2. Through Net Banking – Check the balance in account and keep all credentials ready while logging on to website for submitting Application Form. Candidate should Login with his/her credentials of net banking and make payment through Net Banking.
Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’ the candidates are advised as following:
1. If the fee is paid through credit/debit card and status is not OK, it means the transaction is cancelled. Therefore, such candidates have to pay the fee once again and ensure the OK fee status.
2. For cancelled transactions, the amount will, automatically, be refunded to concerned credit/debit card within 15 days of last date of submission of Application Form.
Generation of Confirmation Page confirms the final submission of Application Form. If Confirmation Page has not been generated, this means that Application Form has not been submitted successfully.
To avoid any kind of inconvenience or last minute rush or unforeseen difficulties, candidates are advised to submit Online Application Form without waiting for the last date. NTA will not be responsible for network problems or any other problem of this nature in submission of online application during the last day.
Admit Card for IGNOU OPENMAT XLVII:
The Admit Card is issued provisionally to the candidates, subject to their satisfying the eligibility conditions.
The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website w.e.f. 09th April, 2020 and appear for the Examination at the given Centre on the Date and Timing as indicated in their Admit Card.
No candidate will be allowed to appear at any examination centre, on Date and Timings other than that allotted to her/him in the Admit card.
In case candidates are unable to download Admit Cards from the website, the candidate should approach the Help Line……………. between 9:00 am to 7:00 pm all days.
The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully and follow them during the conduct of the examination.
In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or his/her photograph and signatures shown in the Admit Card and Confirmation Page, the candidate may immediately approach the Help Line between 9:00 am to 6:00 pm all days. In such cases, candidates would appear in the examination with the already downloaded Admit Card. However, NTA will take necessary action to make correction in the record later.
Important Notes:
a. Candidate may please note that Admit Cards will not be sent by post.
b. In no case, the duplicate Admit Card for IGNOU OPENMAT- XLVII would be issued at the Examination Centres.
c. Candidate must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made therein.
d. Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Cards in good condition for future reference.
e. No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose Applications are found to be incomplete for any reasons (including indistinct/ doubtful photographs/unsigned Applications) or who do not fulfill the eligibility criteria for the examination.
f. Issue of Admit Cards, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility which shall be further scrutinized at subsequent stages of admission process
In case of any technical issue or due to a natural disaster, if an exam in a particular shift/subject has to be rescheduled, NTA may follow the process of normalization of the two test forms as per policy.
Selection of a candidate in the test is provisional subject to being found otherwise eligible for Admission.
In case a candidate is found providing incorrect information or the identity is proved to be false at any time in the future, the candidate shall face penal action as per the law.
Please keep the following safely with you till the admission process is completed:
i. At least four printouts of the Confirmation Page of Online Application Form.
ii. Print Proof of fee paid.
iii. Photographs (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) – 6 to 8 passport size photographs need to be kept aside. iv. Copy of the Admit Card.
Cities for NTA-IGNOU Test on 29th April, 2020
S.No.
State
City
City Code
1
Andhra Pradesh
Chirala
AP04
2
Andhra Pradesh
Guntur
AP07
3
Andhra Pradesh
Kakinada
AP09
4
Andhra Pradesh
Kurnool
AP10
5
Andhra Pradesh
Nellore
AP11
6
Andhra Pradesh
Rajahmundry
AP13
7
Andhra Pradesh
Tirupathi
AP16
8
Andhra Pradesh
Vijayawada
AP17
9
Andhra Pradesh
Visakhapatnam
AP18
10
Andhra Pradesh
Vizianagaram
AP19
11
Arunachal Pradesh
Itanagar
AL01
12
Assam
Dibrugarh
AM01
13
Assam
Guwahati
AM02
14
Assam
Jorhat
AM03
15
Assam
Silchar
AM04
16
Assam
Tezpur
AM05
17
Bihar
Arrah
BR09
18
Bihar
Bhagalpur
BR02
19
Bihar
Darbhanga
BR04
20
Bihar
Muzaffarpur
BR06
21
Bihar
Patna
BR07
22
Bihar
Purnea
BR08
23
Chandigarh
Chandigarh/Mohali
CH01
24
Chhattisgarh
Bhilai Nagar
CG01
25
Chhattisgarh
Bilaspur
HP01
26
Chhattisgarh
Raipur
CG03
27
Delhi -NCR
Delhi/New Delhi
DL01
28
Delhi -NCR
Faridabad
HR03
29
Delhi -NCR
Ghaziabad
UP07
30
Delhi -NCR
Greater Noida/Noida
UP09
31
Delhi -NCR
Gurugram
HR04
32
Delhi -NCR
Meerut
UP14
33
Goa
PANAJI/MADGAON
GO01
34
Gujarat
Ahmedabad/Gandhinagar
GJ01
35
Gujarat
Anand
GJ02
36
Gujarat
Mehsana
GJ08
37
Gujarat
Rajkot
GJ10
38
Gujarat
Surat
GJ11
39
Gujarat
Vadodara
GJ12
40
Haryana
Ambala
HR01
41
Haryana
Yamuna Nagar
HR10
42
Himachal Pradesh
Shimla
HP06
43
Haryana
Kurukshetra
HR07
44
Himachal Pradesh
Hamirpur
HP03
45
J&K
Jammu
JK02
46
J&K
Srinagar (J & K)
JK04
47
Jharkhand
Bokaro
JH01
48
Jharkhand
Dhanbad
JH02
49
Jharkhand
Hazaribagh
JH05
50
Jharkhand
Jamshedpur
JH03
51
Jharkhand
Ranchi
JH04
52
Karnataka
Belagum
KK02
53
Karnataka
Bengaluru
KK04
54
Karnataka
Hubballi(Hubli)
KK10
55
Karnataka
Kalaburagi(Gulbarga)
KK08
56
Karnataka
Mangaluru(Mangalore)
KK12
57
Karnataka
Mysuru(Mysore)
KK14
58
Karnataka
Shivamogga(Shimoga)
KK15
59
Karnataka
Udupi
KK17
60
Kerala
Ernakulam
KL04
61
Kerala
Kannur
KL07
62
Kerala
Kollam
KL09
63
Kerala
Kottayam
KL11
64
Kerala
Kozhikode
KL12
65
Kerala
Thrissur
KL18
66
Kerala
Trivandrum
KL17
67
Madhya Pradesh
Bhopal
MP03
68
Madhya Pradesh
Gwalior
MP06
69
Madhya Pradesh
Indore
MP07
70
Madhya Pradesh
Jabalpur
MP08
71
Madhya Pradesh
Sagar
MP12
72
Madhya Pradesh
Satna
MP13
73
Madhya Pradesh
Ujjain
MP15
74
Maharashtra
Amravati
MR03
75
Maharashtra
Aurangabad
MR04
76
Maharashtra
Jalgaon
MR13
77
Maharashtra
Kolhapur
MR14
78
Maharashtra
Mumbai
MR16
79
Maharashtra
Nagpur
MR17
80
Maharashtra
Nanded
MR18
81
Maharashtra
Nasik
MR19
82
Maharashtra
Pune
MR22
83
Meghalaya
Shillong
MG01
84
Mizoram
Aizawl
MZ01
85
Nagaland
Kohima
NL02
86
Odisha
Balasore
OR02
87
Odisha
Berhampur
OR03
88
Odisha
Bhubaneswar
OR04
89
Odisha
Cuttack
OR05
90
Odisha
Dhenkanal
OR06
91
Odisha
Rourkela
OR08
92
Odisha
Sambalpur
OR09
93
Punjab
Amritsar
PB01
94
Punjab
Bhatinda
PB02
95
Punjab
Jalandhar
PB04
96
Punjab
Ludhiana
PB05
97
Punjab
Patiala
PB08
98
Rajasthan
Ajmer
RJ01
99
Rajasthan
Bikaner
RJ05
100
Rajasthan
Jodhpur
RJ07
101
Rajasthan
Sikar
RJ09
102
Rajasthan
Udaipur
RJ11
103
Tamil Nadu
Chennai
TN01
104
Tamil Nadu
Coimbatore
TN02
105
Tamil Nadu
Madurai
TN08
106
Tamil Nadu
Salem
TN11
107
Tamil Nadu
Tirunelveli
TN15
108
Tamil Nadu
Trichy
TN14
109
Tamil Nadu
Vellore
TN18
110
Telangana
Hyderabad
TL01
111
Telangana
Karimnagar
TL02
112
Telangana
Warangal
TL07
113
Uttar Pradesh
Agra
UP01
114
Uttar Pradesh
Aligarh
UP02
115
Uttar Pradesh
Allahabad
UP03
116
Uttar Pradesh
Bareilly
UP04
117
Uttar Pradesh
Gorakhpur
UP08
118
Uttar Pradesh
Jhansi
UP10
119
Uttar Pradesh
Kanpur
UP11
120
Uttar Pradesh
Lucknow
UP12
121
Uttar Pradesh
Moradabad
UP15
122
Uttar Pradesh
Muzaffarnagar
UP16
123
Uttar Pradesh
Varanasi
UP18
124
Uttarakhand
Dehradun
UK01
125
Uttarakhand
Haldwani
UK02
126
Uttarakhand
Roorkee
UK06
127
West Bengal
Asansol
WB01
128
West Bengal
Hooghly
WB06
129
West Bengal
Kalyani
WB08
130
West Bengal
Kolkata
WB10
131
West Bengal
Siliguri
WB11
Written by Ranker Admin, March 11th, 2020 | No Comments »
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has entrusted the responsibility of conducting All India Entrance Examinations for admission to UG, PG & Ph.D Courses in AUs, and award of scholarships and fellowships to the NTA from 2019 onwards.
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is the apex body for coordinating, guiding, and managing research and education in agriculture in the entire country under the aegis of DARE, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Considering the importance of agricultural education, the University Education Commission (1948) chaired by Dr. S. Radhakrishnan recommended the establishment of Rural Universities in the country. As a result, the first State Agricultural University was established in 1960 at Pantnagar on the pattern of the Land Grant Colleges of the United States. The ICAR-AU system of India has 75 Agricultural Universites comprising 64 State Agricultural, Veterinary, Horticultural and Fisheries Universities (SAUs), 4 ICAR-DUs, viz. IARI, IVRI, NDRI and CIFE, 3 Central Agricultural Universities (CAU, Imphal, Dr. RPCAU, Pusa and RLB CAU, Jhansi), 4 Central Universities (CUs) having Faculty of Agriculture (BHU, AMU, Viswa Bharati and Nagaland University). The National Agricultural Research and Education System (NARES) of India is one of the largest in the world, admitting more than 15,000 graduates, 11,000 post-graduates, and 2,500 Ph.Ds annually, in different disciplines of Agriculture and Allied Sciences.
1. FEE DETAILS AND IMPORTANT DATES:
Online submission of Application Form (upto 05:00 pm of 31
March, 2020)
01.03.2020-31.03.2020
Last date of successful transaction of fee through Credit/Debit Card/Net-Banking/UPI (upto 11:50 pm on 31 March, 2020)
01.03.2020-31.03.2020
Fee Payable by candidates General/Unreserved, Other Backward Classes (OBC)-(NCL)* & UPS**/ EWS***
Rs. 750/-
Fee Payable by candidates SC/ST/PwD/Transgender
Rs. 375/-
Processing charges & GST are to be paid
by the candidate, as applicable
Correction in particulars of Application Form on website only (No corrections shall be allowed after 02.05.2020)
25.04.2020-02.05.2020
Downloading of Admit Cards from NTA website
08.05.2020
Date of Examination
01.06.2020
Duration of Examination
150 minutes (2½ hours)
Timing of Examination
9:30 a.m-12:00 noon
Centre, Date and Shift of Examination
As indicated on Admit Card
Display of attempted Question Paper and
Provisional Answer Keys
To be announced later
Websites
www.nta.ac.in, https://icar.nta.nic.in
Declaration of Result on NTA website
15.06.2020
Schedule for Online Counselling
on www.icar.org.in after the declaration of result
*Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in. Only the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General/Unreserved.
** Candidates of Remote and Underprivileged States must check their eligibility before applying.
***As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-2/2019-T.S.I dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019, 04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) for admission in Central Educational Institutions.
2. Candidates can apply for AIEEA (UG) 2020 in Online Mode only on the website https://icar.nta.nic.in.
3. The Application Form other than online mode will not be accepted.
4. Only one application is to be submitted by a candidate.
5. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as given in the Information Bulletin and on NTA website www.nta.ac.in, https://icar.nta.nic.in. Candidates not complying with the instructions shall be summarily disqualified.
6. Candidates must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number provided in the Online Application Form are their own as all information/communication will be sent by NTA through e-mail on e-mail address or SMS on given Mobile Number only.
7. Instructions for filling Online Application Form :
Download Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form. Read them carefully to ensure your eligibility.
Follow the 4 steps given below to Apply Online:
Step-1: Apply for Online Registration using unique Email Id and Mobile No. Step-2: Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated Application No.
Step-3: Upload scanned images of Candidate’s Photograph (file size: 10 kb – 200 kb) and Candidate’s Signature (file size: 4kb – 30kb) and Thumb impression (file size: 3kb-30kb) in JPG/JPEG format. Step-4: Pay fee using SBI/Syndicate/HDFC Payment Gateway through Debit Card/Credit Card/Net Banking/UPI and keep proof of fee paid. In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of fee then the transaction is cancelled, and amount will be refunded to the candidate’s account. However, the candidate has to make another transaction, in case the Confirmation Page is not generated.
All the 4 Steps can be done together or at separate times.
8. Candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA website and check their e-mails/SMS regularly for latest updates.
9. Candidate shall appear at their own cost at the Examination Centre on the date and shift indicated on their Admit Card issued by NTA.
10. Any request to change the Examination Centre, Date , Shift and Subject provided on the Admit Card will not be considered under any circumstances.
Note:
1. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step-3 and step-4 are not complete. Such forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be entertained.
2. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA under any circumstances.
3. The entire application process of AIEEA (UG) 2020is online, including uploading of scanned images, Payment of Fees, and Printing of Confirmation Page. Therefore, candidates are not required to send/submit any document(s) including Confirmation Page to NTA /ICAR through Post/ Fax/ E-mail/by Hand.
Candidates are NOT allowed to carry Instrument/Geometry/Pencil box, Handbag, Purse, any kind of Paper/ Stationery/Textual material (printed or written material), Eatables and Water (loose or packed), Mobile Phone/ Ear Phone/ Microphone/ Pager, Calculator, DocuPen, Slide Rules, Log Tables, Camera, Tape Recorder, Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, any metallic item or electronic gadgets/ devices in the Examination Hall/Room. Diabetic students will be allowed to carry eatables like sugar tablets/fruits (like banana/apple/orange) and transparent water bottle to the Examination Hall. However, they will not be allowed to carry packed foods like chocolates/candy/sandwich etc.
DISCLAIMER
1. Candidates are advised to read the Information Bulletin carefully and go through the instructions regarding filling of Online Application Form given on AIEEA (UG) 2020 website www.nta.ac.in, https://icar.nta.nic.in before starting online registration.
2. Candidate should ensure that all information entered during the online registration process is correct.
3. Online information provided by candidates like name of candidate, contact/address details, category, PwD status, educational qualification details, date of birth, etc during online registration for AIEEA (UG) 2020 will be treated as correct/final and NTA will not entertain, under any circumstances, any request for change in information provided by the candidates.
4. NTA disclaims any liability that may arise to a candidate(s) due to incorrect information provided by the candidate(s) during online registration process.
5. NTA does not edit/modify/alter any information entered by the candidates after completion of application form under any circumstances. Any request for change in information thereafter will not be entertained. Therefore, candidates are advised to exercise utmost caution for filling up correct details in application form.
Usage of Data and Information: NTA can use the data provided by the End User (test taker in this case) for internal purpose(s) including training, research and development, analysis and other permissible purpose(s).
1.1 About National Tetsing Agency (NTA)
The Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), Government of India (GOI) has established National Testing Agency (NTA) as an independent autonomous and self-sustained premier testing organization under Society Registration Act, 1860 for conducting efficient, transparent and international standards tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admissions to premier higher education institutions.
The objectives of NTA, inter-alia, include:
i. To conduct efficient, transparent and international standard tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admission.
ii. To undertake research on educational, professional and testing system to identify gaps in the knowledge systems and take steps for bridging them.
iii. To produce and disseminate information and research on education and professional development standards.
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has entrusted the responsibility of conducting All India Competitive Examinations for admission to Bachelor UG, Masters PG & Ph.D Courses in Agricultural Universities (AUs) and award of scholarships and fellowships, to the NTA from 2019 onwards.
1.2 About ICAR
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is the apex body for coordinating, guiding, and managing research and education in agriculture in the entire country under the aegis of DARE, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Considering the importance of agricultural education, the University Education Commission (1948) chaired by Dr. S. Radhakrishnanrecommended the establishment of Rural Universities in the country. As a result, the first State Agricultural University was established in 1960 at Pantnagar on the pattern of the Land Grant Colleges of the United States.
The ICAR-AU system of India has 74 Agricultural Universites comprising 63 State Agricultural, Veterinary, Horticultural and Fisheries Universities (SAUs), 4 ICAR-DUs, viz. IARI, IVRI, NDRI and CIFE, 3 Central Agricultural Universities (CAU, Imphal, Dr. RPCAU, Pusa and RLB CAU, Jhansi), 4 Central Universities (CUs) having Faculty of Agriculture (BHU, AMU, Viswa Bharati and Nagaland University). The National Agricultural Research, Education and Extension System (NAREES) of India is one of the largest in the world, admitting more than 27000 graduates, 14000 post-graduates and 4700 Ph.Ds annually, in different disciplines of Agriculture and Allied Sciences.
During 2019-20, against the total of 2784 Seats, 2189 candidates were recommended by ICAR for admission to accredited Bachelor degree programmes in 59 accredited AUs under the ICAR-AU system.
1.3 AIEEA (UG) 2020
In 2020, All India Entrance Examination for Admission, AIEEA (UG) shall be conducted for admission to Bachelor Degree programmes in Agriculture and Allied Sciences (other than Veterinary Sciences), 2 at Agricultural Universities on 15% of the University seats (100% seats in RLB CAU Jhansi, NDRI Karnal and Dr. RP CAU Pusa, Bihar). Further, not more than 40% candidates from any one state shall be admitted in any agricultural university/subject.
The AIEEA (UG)-2020 examination for the academic session 2020-21 will be conducted at 178 cities (Annexure-I) all over the country, enabling participation of a large number of candidates seeking admission in Bachelor degree programmes in accredited AUs in different disciplines. Candidates declared eligible for registration and choice filling for counselling by ICAR will only be considered for allocation of subject and the Agricultural University. There is no provision of direct nomination for admission through ICAR in any Bachelor degree programme without qualifying in ICAR AIEEA (UG).
2.1 Degree Programmes available for Admission in 2020-21.
During academic session 2020-21, admission to 11 Bachelor degree programmes of four years duration in the subjects enlisted in Annexure-III is available to Indian Nationals based on the meritrank in ICAR AIEEA(UG)-2020. Candidates may note that all Undergraduate Degrees in the disciplines of Agricultural Sciences have been declared as professional degrees.
2.2 University-Wise and Subject–Wise Number of Seats Available for Admission
Number of seats available for admission through AIEEA (UG) in different disciplines at accredited Agricultural Universities (including non-accredited RLBCAU, Jhansi and some non-accredited programmes and colleges of Dr. RPCAU, Pusa) for the academic session 2020-21 will be displayed on ICAR website www.icar.org.in at the time of counseling
2.3 Schedule of AIEEA (UG) 2020
Schedule for important examination related activities have been given below.However, candidates are requested to keep themselves updated about the schedule through NTA and ICAR websites www.nta.ac.in, https://icar.nta.nic.in and www.icar.org.in.
Schedule of AIEEA(UG)-2020
Online submission
of Application Form (upto 05:00 pm of 31 March, 2020)
01.03.2020-31.03.2020
Last date of successful transaction of
fee through Credit/Debit Card/NetBanking/UPI upto 11:50 pm of 31 March, 2020
01.03.2020-31.03.2020
Correction in particulars of Application
Form on website only (No corrections shall be allowed after 02.05.2020)
25.04.2020-02.05.2020
Downloading of Admit Cards from NTA
website
08.05.2020
Date of Examinatio
01.06.2020
Duration of Examination
150 minutes (2½ hours)
Timing of Examination
9:30a.m-12:00 noon
Centre, Date and Shift of Examination
As indicated on Admit Card
Display of attempted Question Paper and
Provisional Answer Keys
To be announced later
Websites
www.nta.ac.in,
https://icar.nta.nic.in
Declaration of Result on NTA website
15.06.2020
Schedule for Online Counselling
To be announced by the ICAR on www.icar.org.in after the declaration of
result
*Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in. Only the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General/Unreserved.
** Candidates of Remote and Underprivileged States must check their eligibility before applying.
***As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-2/2019-T.S.I dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019, 04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) for admission in Central Educational Institutions.
2.4 Scheme of Examination
The test of AIEEA (UG) 2020is a single test of 02:30 hours duration. Details of the test are as given below:
Mode of Examination
LAN Based CBT
Duration
02:30 hours
Number of Questions
150 (50 in each subject)
Type of Questions
Multiple Choice with 4 options
Scoring
1. 4 marks for each correct response 2. -1 mark for each incorrect response (negative scoring) 3. 0 for non-attempt
Medium of Paper
English and Hindi
Note:
1. Each candidate has to attempt/opt/choose only three subjects (PCB/PCM/PCA/ABC) in the examination as per choice in the Application Form (Annexure-IV).
2. The candidates must attempt subjects as per their choice in the Application, so they must exercise choice carefully.
3. In case of any discrepancy between English & Hindi Version of a question, English Version would be considered as valid.
2.5 Syllabus for the Test
The Questions in the test shall be based on the syllabus prescribed by the ICAR, which is available at the website www.icar.org.in.
2.6 Subjects
Candidates need to choose subject as per their Eligilbility Conditions for different UG Programs (Annexure-IV)
2.7 Conditions for the award of National Talent Scholarship (NTS)-2020
National Talent Scholarship would be available through the Agricultural University concerned, to every student admitted on ICAR seat at any Agricultural University in a state outside his/her domicile state. Detailed terms & conditions for the scholarship and admission could be found at the ICAR website .NTS shall be awarded only after completion of Online Counseling.
The candidates are informed that in accordance with the decision taken during XVI Meeting of National Agricultural Education Accreditation Board (NAEAB) held on 28.03.2016, the admissions to the Bachelor’s degree programmes of RLBCAU, Jhansi shall be made through ICAR’s AIEEA (UG). However, it has been decided by the Council that w.e.f. the Academic Session 2020-21, the candidates recommended for admission to these programmes shall not be eligible for the award of NTS(UG). Such candidates may be provided scholarship by RLBCAU, Jhansi from its budget w.e.f. the Academic Session 2020-21.
Similarly, in accordance with the decision taken during XIX Meeting of National Agricultural Education Accreditation Board (NAEAB) held on 20.03.2017, the admissions to the nonaccredited Bachelor’s degree programmes or non-accredited colleges of Dr. RPCAU, Pusa shall be made through ICAR’s AIEEA (UG). However, it has been decided by the Council that w.e.f. the Academic Session 2020-21, the candidates recommended for admission to these programmes shall not be eligible for the award of NTS(UG). Such candidates may be provided scholarship by Dr. RPCAU, Pusa from its budget w.e.f. the Academic Session 2020-21.
However, the students who are already enrolled in non-accredited Bachelor’s degree programmes in non-accredited colleges and received the letter of award of the scholarship from the ICAR shall continue to avail the same in accordance with the prescribed rules and regulations of the scholarship issued by the Council in this regard. The list of ICAR accredited Bachelor’s degree programmes and Colleges of Dr. RPCAU, Pusa is given at Annexure-V.
The award of NTS(UG) to the candidates recommended for admission to RLBCAU, Jhansi and Dr. RPCAU, Pusa may be considered in future subject to accreditation of the university, Bachelor’s degree programmes and Colleges by the Council.
2.8 Reservation Policy
A. SC/ST/OBC-(NCL)/EWS/PwD in each Category
1. There would be reservation of seats for admission as well as ICAR (UG) Scholarship to the extent of 15% for Scheduled Caste and 7.5% for Scheduled Tribe candidates in different disciplines. The reservation ofseats among SC/ST categoriesisinterchangeable i.e., ifsufficient number of candidates are not available to fill up the seats as well as UG Scholarship reserved for ST candidates, these can be filled up from among suitable SC candidates and vice-versa in a given subject as per merit-rank in examination. The original SC/ ST certificate in prescribed form (Annexure-XVII) is required to be produced for verification at the time of admission. Depending on merit and choice, such candidates can also take seat from the General/Unreserved Category.
2. Reservation for candidates belonging to Central OBC-NCL category would be available at BHU, PSB Viswa Bharati; SASARD Nagaland University, CAUs and NDRI as per the latest Government of India directives applicable at the time of counseling and Hon’ble SC Judgment dated 18th August, 2011 and communication of seats by these universities at the time of counseling. Candidates claiming admission under this category have to produce a Central OBC certificate as per specimen enclosed in Annexure-XVIII.
3. Reservation of seats for EWS shall be in accordance with the Gazette Notification No. DL- (N)/04/0007/2003-19, dated 12th January, 2019, Ministry of Law and Justice (Legislative Department), Govt. of India or any further related Govt. of India directive(s) applicable at the time of counseling. The provision shall be applicable only for admission to Central Educational Institutions and not to SAUs and minority educational institutions, if any, under the ICAR-AU system. The unfilled seats remaining under Gen-EWS category will be dereserved to Unreserved (UR)/OPEN category seats The certificate format for EWS candidate is given at Annexure – XIX.
4. Five percent seats are reserved horizontally across the categories in different subjects, for Persons with Disablitiy (PwD) candidates suffering from low vision, hearing impairment, locomotors disability or cerebral palsy with appropriate medical certificate having at least 40% disability and found suitable by the Counseling Committee/University official. The candidate applying for admission under this category should submit a copy of the certificate about being PwD from a Govt. Hospital/Medical Board at the time of admission in allotted University as specimen (Annexure–XIII). The criteria for assessing the degree of handicap could be variable from one subject to another. The decision of the University allotted will be final in this regard. If seat is not available in a particular Category to which the PwD candidate belongs, then the same would be drawn from General Category/Unreserved Category depending upon the availability.
B. Reservation for Remote and Under Privileged States/UT (UPS)
Two percent seats under each discipline would be reserved, horizontally, across categories for the candidates of the remote and under privileged States/UTs namely (i) Andaman & Nicobar Island, (ii) Arunachal Pradesh, (iii) Dadra and Nagar Haveli, (iv) Daman & Diu, (v) Goa, (vi) Lakshadweep, (vii) Manipur, (viii) Meghalaya, (ix) Mizoram, (x) Nagaland, (xi) Sikkim (xii) Tripura and (xiii) Ladakh where educational facilities in Agriculture and Allied Science subjects either do not exist or have no SAU(s) and who qualify this examination. UPS candidates will have to produce domicile certificate issued by the competent authority at the time of admission. There will not be any State quota within this quota.
Note:
1. Candidates need to refer to ICAR website www.icar.org.in for detailed information regarding reservation of seats and/or allocation of scholarship/fellowships for SC/ST/OBC (NCL)/ PwD/UPS/EWS in each category at the time of counseling.
2. The responsibility for verification of the genuineness of SC/ST/OBC (NCL), PwD and UPS certificate will be of the concerned AU where the candidate has been granted admission on the basis of counseling.
2.9 Cities for AIEEA (UG) 2020Examination Centres
The Centre-Cities where the AIEEA (UG)-2020 will be conducted are given at Annexure- I.While applying candidates need to select any four cities of their choice for AIEEA (UG)-2020. The efforts will be made to allot city of examination to the candidates in order of the choice opted by them in their application form. However, due to administrative reasons, a different city of nearby area may be allotted.
NTA can change/shift the examination city centre opted by the candidate to another nearby centre, if number of candidates are more at any examination city centre.
The Examination City Centre, once opted, shall not be changed.
The decision of the NTA regarding allotment of Centre, Date and Shift shall be final. No further correspondence or request shall be entertained in such case.
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA AND QUALIFICATIONS
3.1 General Eligibility Criteria to appear in AIEEA (UG)- 2020
The eligibility qualifications for various degree programmes with the list of subjects is enlisted at (Annexure-IV).
3.2 Qualifying Examination at 10+2 Level
1. In order to appear in AIEEA (UG) 2020, Indian national candidates must have passed 10+2 Senior Secondary Examination of the Central Board of Secondary Education or any other examination within scope and standard found to be equivalent to the Senior Secondary Examination of a recognised Indian Board/University (Annexure VI), with minimum prescribed marks/grade, after a period of 12 years of study. The medium of instruction in the admitting University will be English.
2. Candidate must have passed any one of the qualifying examinations enumerated above securing not less than 50% marks in aggregate for General, OBC (NCL), UPS, EWS categories and 40% marks in aggregate for SC, ST, Transgender, PwD categories. There will be no rounding-off of the OGPA/percentage of marks of qualifying examination while deciding the basic eligibility of any candidate for admission e.g. if a candidate obtained 49.99% marks in his/her qualifying examination, then it will not be rounded-off to 50%.
3. Candidate having a compartment/ supplementary in any of the subjects will not be eligible unless proof of having cleared the examination with requisite percentage asabove is available.
4. Candidate already appeared in the qualifying examination enumerated above, can also apply but would be required to submit evidence of having satisfied the conditions latest at the time of counselling/admission in the allotted university.
5. Candidate must ensure that he/she fulfills the eligibility requirements for the examination as well as admission as detailed in the Information Bulletin. Applying for AIEEA (UG) 2020, appearing in the examination and qualifying the same does not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility. The applicant for a particular Subject must satisfy the eligibility criteria as specified in this Information Bulletin (or its amendments / corrections).
No certificates are required to be uploaded along with the Application Form at the time of online submission.
The documents / certificates etc., shall be verified directly at the time of admission in the admitting university. In case the candidate is found not-eligible at any stage, his/her candidature would be summarily rejected and admission will be cancelled.
NOTE: Candidates must note that all applicants shall be bound by the conditions as laid down in this Information Bulletin, and the rules and regulations as enshrined in the admitting University Act, Statutes, Ordinances, notifications and guidelines issued from time to time. It is the sole responsibility of the candidate to ensure that he/she entirely fulfills the specified eligibility before appearing in the examination.
The candidate must ensure that all the eligibility conditions as laid down in the Information Bulletin are fulfilled in toto by him/her, including the minimum age limit, percentage of marks obtained in the 10+2 examination, relevant certificates, etc. and final result in hand at the time of counseling/admission in the university. Please note that ICAR/University will NOT be held responsible for denial of admission to non-eligible candidates.
3.3 Age Limit
Indian Nationals of at least 16 years of age as on 31.08.2020 are eligible to apply for the examination. No relaxation is admissible regarding the minimum age limit.
4.1 Instructions for filling Online Application Form
Candidates may apply for ICAR-AIEEA (UG) 2020 in “Online” Mode ONLY by accessing the website https://nta.ac.in, https://icar.nta.nic.in . The Application Form in other than online mode would not be accepted, in any case. Only one application is to be submitted by a candidate for the same level of programme. More than one application i.e. Multiple application forms submitted by a candidate will be summarily rejected.
In order to appear in ICAR-AIEEA (UG) 2020, the candidates are required to apply online as per procedure detailed below. Before filling and submitting the online form, candidates should download the Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form (Annexure-IX); and read them carefully. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as given in the Information Bulletin and on NTA website. Application Forms not complying with the instructions are liable to be rejected.
Candidates must keep following information ready before filling online Application Form:-
Govt Identity Details like Aadhaar Number (last 4 digits)/Election Card (EPIC No.)/Passport number/Ration Card Number/ Bank Account Number/PAN Number/ Other valid Govt Ids.
Address for communication, Mobile Number, email id, etc.
Scanned images of latest Photograph (size of 10 kb to 200 kb) in JPG/ JPEG format only
Scanned image of Signature (size of 4 kb to 30 kb) in JPG/ JPEG format only
Scanned image of Thumb Impression, Male-Left and Female-Right (size of 3kb to 30 kb) in JPG/ JPEG format only
Bank Account details for payment of Fee, for uploading as part of submission of online application.
To avoid any kind of inconvenience or last minute rush or unforeseen difficulties, candidates are advised to submit Online Application Form without waiting for the last date. NTA will not be responsible for network problems or any other problem of this nature in submission of online application during the last day.
(a) Particulars to be filled in the Online Application Form:
Before beginning the process of filling the Online Application Form, please keep the following information ready with you:
Copy of Board/ University Certificate for Candidate’s Name, Mother’s Name, Father’s Name and Date of Birth
Type of Identification – Bank A/c Number/ Passport Number/ Ration Card/ Aadhar Card/Election ID/Other Govt ID
Certificate of Qualifying examination
Your Mailing Address as well as Permanent Address with Pin Code.
Four cities for Centres of your choice (Refer Annexure-I)
Category Certificate, if applicable
Economically Weaker Section (EWS) Certificate, if applicable
Proof of Domicile State (Annexure-II)
Person with Disability (PwD) Certificate, if applicable
e-mail address and Mobile Number of candidates
Scanned images in JPG/JPEG format only
Title Page
Candidate’s scanned Photograph
File size must be between 10 kb
to 200 kb
Candidate’s scanned Signature in running
hand
File size must be between 4 kb to 30 kb.
Candidate’s Thumb Impression, Male-Left and Female-Right
File size must be between 3 kb to 30 kb
Step I: Registration
Fill in the basic information and note down the system generated Application No.
(i) Candidate’s Name/ Mother’s Name/ Father’s Name: Provide Candidate’s Name, Mother’s Name, Father’s Name as given in the Secondary School Examination or equivalent Board/ University Certificate in capital letters
(ii) Date of Birth: dd/mm/yyyy Provide Candidate’s date of birth as recorded in Secondary School Examination or equivalent Board/ University certificate.
(iii) Mobile Number and e-mail Address : Candidates must provide own Mobile Number and e-mail address.
Note: Only one e-mail address and one Mobile Number are valid for one application
Step II: Complete the Application Form
Fill in the complete Application Form
(i) Other Backward Classes (OBC)- Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website (www.ncbc.nic.in). Thus, the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General.
(ii) Economically Weaker Section (EWS) – As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the OM No. 12- 4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-2/2019-T.S.I dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019, 04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Section (EWS) for admission in Central Educational Institutions.
(iii) Provide complete postal address with PIN Code (Mailing Address as well as Permanent Address) for further correspondence. PIN code of Correspondence Address should be given in the space provided for this purpose. Note: The NTA shall not be responsible for any delay/loss in postal transit or for an incorrect Correspondence address given by the Applicant in the Application Form.
(iv) Choice of Cities for Examination Centres: The candidate should select any four cities of their choice for examination of ICAR-AIEEA (UG)2020 given at (Annexure-I).
(v) Under no circumstances the choice of cities for Centre and ICAR-AIEEA-UG subject filled in the Application Form shall be changed by the NTA.
Step III: Uploading of scanned photograph , signature and Thumb Impression
(i) Candidate’s Photograph
The photograph must be taken recently. Photograph should not be with cap or goggles. 80% of the face should be clearly visible, with a white background.
Spectacles are allowed if being used regularly.
Polaroid and Computer-generated photos are not acceptable.
Applications not complying with these instructions or with unclear photographs are liable to be rejected.
Candidates may please note that if it is found that photograph uploaded is fabricated i.e. de-shaped or seems to be hand-made or computer made, the form of the candidate will be rejected and the same would be considered as using unfairmeans and the candidate would be dealt with accordingly.
Application without photograph shall be rejected. The photograph need not be attested.
Candidates are advised to take 6 to 8 passport size coloured photographs with white background.
Passport size photograph is to be used for uploading on Online Application Form and also for pasting on Attendance Sheet at the examination centre.
The candidate should scan his/her passport size photograph for uploading. File size must be between 10 kb to 200 kb.
(ii) Candidate’s Signature
The candidates are required to upload their full signature in running handwriting in the appropriate box given in the Online Application Form. Writing full name in the Box in Capital letters would not be accepted as signature and the Application Form will be rejected. Further, unsigned Online Application Forms will also be rejected.
The candidate should put his full signature on white paper with Black Ink pen and scan for uploading.
File size must be between 4 kb to 30 kb.
Note: Candidate must ensure that the uploaded images are clear and proper.
(iii) Candidate’s Thumb Impression
The candidates are required to upload their Thumb Impression in the appropriate box given in the Online Application Form.
Males have to use Left Thumb Impression and Females have to use Right Thumb Impression
File size must be between 3 kb to 30 kb.
Step IV: Payment of Fee and Status of receipt of Online Application Form with Fee:
The final Confirmation of payment of Fee and the receipt of online transaction will be displayed in the Confirmation Page of AIEEA-UG 2020. The candidature of the candidate, whose fees has not been received upto the prescribed last date (31 March 2020), will not be considered for the examination. In case the candidate has paid the fee but is still not able to download the Confirmation Page, the candidate should approach the Help Line between 10.00 am to 5.00 pm from 09 May 2020 to 15 May 2020 with the following documents for correction and considering his/her candidature for the examination.
(i) Proof of fee paid (Photocopy of transaction slip of fees paid through Debit/Credit Card and Net Banking/Paytm). In case, the fee has not been remitted within the prescribed last date, the application would be treated as incomplete/unsuccessful and it shall not be considered.
(ii) The fee difference on account of change of category by the candidate during correction of particulars in online application form shall have to be paid mandatorily by the candidate.
(iii) No request regarding non-receipt of Online Application Form/Fee would be entertained by the NTA after 16May 2020.
(iv) Candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA website regularly for latest updates. Candidates should check their mailbox for the given email IDs and SMS in their registered Mobile Number for latest updates and information.
(b) Check List for filling the Online Application Form:
The candidates are advised to ensure the following points before filling the Online Application Form:
(i) Whether they fulfill the eligibility conditions for the Test as prescribed under the heading ‘General Eligibility Criteria’ and ‘Age Limit’.
(ii) That they have filled their category viz General/OBC (Non-Creamy Layer)/SC/ST/EWS/PwD/ Transgender, in the relevant column correctly.
(iii) That they have selected their domicile state code (Annexure-II) carefully.
(iv) That the Person with Disability (PwD) candidate has selected the relevant column in the Online Application Form.
(v) Whether they have downloaded and kept a Printout of Application Form (Confirmation Page) for their own record and future usage.
Provision of Aadhaar:
The Aadhaar number is only one of the types of identification and is not mandatory. Candidates may also enter Passport number, Ration Card number, Bank Account number or any other valid Government identity number.
4. 2 Replica of Application Form
The replica of the ICAR-AIEEA (UG)-2020 Application Format is available at (Annexure-IX)
Steps to complete the Application Process
Application Form may be submitted in four Download, save and print copies of Confirmation Page after successful remittance of fee and keep copies safely for future reference. All the 4 Steps can be done together or at separate times simple steps:
Step 1
Apply
for Online Registration using unique Email Id and Mobile No.
Step 2
Fill in the Online
Application Form and note down the system generated Application No.
Step 3
Upload scanned images of
Candidate’s Photograph (file size: 10 kb – 200 kb), Candidate’s Signature
(file size: 4kb – 30kb) and Thumb Impression (file size: 3kb – 30 kb) in
JPG/JPEG
format.
Step 4
Pay fee
using SBI/Syndicate/HDFC Payment
Gateway through Debit Card/CreditCard/Net-
Banking/UPI and keep
proof of fee paid. In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of fee then the
transaction is cancelled, and amount will be refunded to the candidate’s
account. However, the candidate has to make
another transaction, in case the
Confirmation Page is not generated.
Download, save and print copies of Confirmation Page after successful remittance of fee and keep copies safely for future reference.
All the 4 Steps can be done together or at separate times
Note:
1. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step-3 and step-4 are not complete. Such forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be entertained.
2. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA under any circumstances.
3. The entire application process of ICAR-AIEEA (UG)-2020 is online, including uploading of scanned images, Payment of Fees, and Printing of Confirmation Page. Therefore, candidates are not required to send/submit any document(s) including Confirmation Page to NTA/ICAR through Post/ Fax/ E-mails /by Hand.
4.5 Payment of Fee
Application Fee Payable by the Candidates of Various Categories:
Applicable Service/Processing charges & GST are to be paid by the candidate.
**Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in. Only the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General/Unreserved.
***As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Section (EWS) for admission in Central Educational Institutions
4.6 Method of Fee Payment
After completing Step 3 of online Application Form, candidates may remit the examination fee (Step 4) by choosing the following options:
1. Through Debit/Credit card – Candidates need to check the validity of the Debit/Credit Card, while logging on to website for submitting Application Form. Candidate should enter the information asked for and make the required payment through Debit/Credit Card.
2. Through Net Banking – Check the balance in account and keep all credentials ready while logging on to website for submitting Application Form. Candidate should Login with his/her credentials of net banking and make payment through Net Banking.
3. Through UPI
Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’ the candidates are advised as following:
If the fee is paid through credit/debit card and status is not OK, it means the transaction is cancelled. Therefore, such candidates have to pay the fee once again and ensure the OK fee status.
For cancelled transactions, the amount will, automatically, be refunded to concerned credit/debit card within 15 days of last date of submission of Application Form.
Generation of Confirmation Page confirms the final submission of Application Form. If Confirmation Page has not been generated, this means that Application Form has not been submitted successfully.
4.7 Admit Card for ICAR AIEEA (UG) 2020
The Admit Card is issued provisionally to the candidates, subject to their satisfying the eligibility conditions.
The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website w.e.f. 08 May 2020 onwards and appear for the Examination at the given Centre on Date and Shift (Timing) as indicated in their Admit Card.
No candidate will be allowed to appear at the examination centre, on Date and Timings other than that allotted to them in their Admit card.
The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully and follow them during the conduct of the examination.
The admit card will be uploaded on NTA website www.nta.ac.in, https://icar.nta.nic.in. Please check the admit card carefully for your Roll No. Name, Subject Group, Date of Birth, Gender, Examination Centre Name, City, and Category, etc. In case of any problem related to Admit card, please contact the given helpline numbers between 10:00 A.M. to 5:00 P.M. between 10 and 25 May 2020.
In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or his/her photograph and signatures shown in the Admit Card and Confirmation Page, the candidate may immediately approach the Help Line between 10:00 am to 5:00 pm between 10 May 2020 to 25 May 2020. In such cases, candidates would appear in the examination with the already downloaded Admit Card. However, NTA will take necessary action to make correction in the record later.
Note :
a. Candidate may please note that Admit Cards will not be sent by post.
b. In no case, the duplicate Admit Card for ICAR AIEEA (UG) 2020 would be issued at the Examination Centres.
c. Candidate must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made therein.
d. Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Cards in good condition for future reference and verification during Counseling.
e. No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose Applications are found to be incomplete for any reasons (including indistinct / doubtful photographs / unsigned Applications)
f. Issue of Admit Cards, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility which shall be further scrutinized at subsequent stages of admission process.
LIST OF EXAMINATION CITY CENTRES
STATE/UTs
CITY
CITY CODE
ANDAMAN AND NICOBAR
PORT BLAIR
AN01
ANDHRA PRADESH
ANANTAPUR
AP01
ANDHRA PRADESH
CHIRALA
AP04
ANDHRA PRADESH
CHITTOOR
AP05
ANDHRA PRADESH
GUNTUR
AP07
ANDHRA PRADESH
KAKINADA
AP09
ANDHRA PRADESH
KURNOOL
AP10
ANDHRA PRADESH
NELLORE
AP11
ANDHRA PRADESH
RAJAHMUNDRY
AP13
ANDHRA PRADESH
TIRUPATHI
AP16
ANDHRA PRADESH
VIJAYAWADA
AP17
ANDHRA PRADESH
VISAKHAPATNAM
AP18
ANDHRA PRADESH
VIZIANAGARAM
AP19
ARUNACHAL PRADESH
ITANAGAR/NAHARL AGUN
AL01
ASSAM
DIBRUGARH
AM01
ASSAM
GUWAHATI
AM02
ASSAM
JORHAT
AM03
ASSAM
SILCHAR (ASSAM)
AM04
ASSAM
TEZPUR
AM05
BIHAR
ARRAH
BR09
BIHAR
BHAGALPUR
BR02
BIHAR
DARBHANGA
BR04
BIHAR
GAYA
BR05
BIHAR
MUZAFFARPUR
BR06
BIHAR
PATNA
BR07
BIHAR
PURNEA
BR08
CHANDIGARH
CHANDIGARH/MOHALI
CH01
CHHATTISGARH
BHILAI NAGAR/DURG
CG01
CHHATTISGARH
BILASPUR (CHHATTISGARH)
CG02
CHHATTISGARH
RAIPUR
CG03
DELHI
DELHI/NEW DELHI
DL01
GOA
PANAJI/MADGAON
GO01
GUJARAT
AHMEDABAD/GAND HINAGAR
GJ01
GUJARAT
ANAND
GJ02
GUJARAT
MEHSANA
GJ08
GUJARAT
RAJKOT
GJ10
GUJARAT
SURAT
GJ11
GUJARAT
VADODARA
GJ12
HARYANA
AMBALA
HR01
HARYANA
FARIDABAD
HR03
HARYANA
GURUGRAM
HR04
HARYANA
HISSAR
HR05
HARYANA
KARNAL
HR06
HARYANA
KURUKSHETRA
HR07
HARYANA
PANIPAT
HR08
HARYANA
SONIPAT
HR09
HARYANA
YAMUNA NAGAR
HR10
HIMACHAL PRADESH
HAMIRPUR (HIMACHALPRADESH)
HP03
HIMACHAL
PRADESH
KANGRA / PALAMPUR
HP04
HIMACHAL
PRADESH
MANDI
HP08
HIMACHAL
PRADESH
SHIMLA
HP06
HIMACHAL
PRADESH
SOLAN
HP07
HIMACHAL
PRADESH
UNA
HP09
JAMMU AND KASHMIR
JAMMU
JK02
JAMMU AND
KASHMIR
SAMBA
JK03
JAMMU AND
KASHMIR
SRINAGAR (J & K)
JK04
JHARKHAND
BOKARO STEEL CITY
JH01
JHARKHAND
DHANBAD
JH02
JHARKHAND
HAZARIBAGH
JH05
JHARKHAND
JAMSHEDPUR
JH03
JHARKHAND
RANCHI
JH04
KARNATAKA
BELAGAVI(BELGAUM)
KK02
KARNATAKA
BELLARY
KK03
KARNATAKA
BENGALURU
KK04
KARNATAKA
BIDAR
KK05
KARNATAKA
DAVANAGERE
KK06
KARNATAKA
DHARWAD /HUBBALLI(HUBLI)
KK10
KARNATAKA
GULBARGA
KK08
KARNATAKA
HASSAN
KK09
KARNATAKA
MANDYA
KK18
KARNATAKA
MANGALURU(MANGALORE)
KK12
KARNATAKA
MYSURU(MYSORE)
KK14
KARNATAKA
SHIVAMOGA(SHIMOGA)
KK15
KARNATAKA
TUMAKURU
KK16
KARNATAKA
UDUPI/MANIPAL
KK17
KERALA
ALAPPUZHA /CHENGANNUR
KL01
KERALA
ERNAKULAM/
ANGAMALY/MOOVATTUPUZHA
KL04
KERALA
IDUKKI
KL05
KERALA
KANNUR
KL07
KERALA
KASARAGOD
KL08
KERALA
KOLLAM
KL09
KERALA
KOTTAYAM
KL11
KERALA
KOZHIKODE
KL12
KERALA
MALAPPURAM
KL13
KERALA
PALAKKAD
KL15
KERALA
PATHANAMTHITTA
KL16
KERALA
THIRUVANANTHAPU RAM
KL17
KERALA
THRISSUR
KL18
LADHAK
LEH
LL01
MADHYA PRADESH
BHOPAL
MP03
MADHYA PRADESH
GWALIOR
MP06
MADHYA PRADESH
INDORE
MP07
MADHYA PRADESH
JABALPUR
MP08
MADHYA PRADESH
SAGAR
MP12
MADHYA PRADESH
SATNA
MP13
MADHYA PRADESH
UJJAIN
MP15
MAHARASHTRA
AMRAVATI
MR03
MAHARASHTRA
AURANGABAD(MAHARASHTRA)
MR04
MAHARASHTRA
JALGAON
MR13
MAHARASHTRA
KOLHAPUR
MR14
MAHARASHTRA
MUMBAI/
NAVI MUMBAI
MR16
MAHARASHTRA
NAGPUR
MR17
MAHARASHTRA
NANDED
MR18
MAHARASHTRA
NASHIK
MR19
MAHARASHTRA
PUNE
MR22
MANIPUR
IMPHAL
MN01
MEGHALAYA
SHILLONG
MG01
MIZORAM
AIZAWL
MZ01
NAGALAND
DIMAPUR
NL01
NAGALAND
KOHIMA
NL02
ODISHA
BALASORE
OR02
ODISHA
BERHAMPUR-GANJAM
OR03
ODISHA
BHUBANESWAR
OR04
ODISHA
CUTTACK
OR05
ODISHA
DHENKANAL
OR06
ODISHA
ROURKELA
OR08
ODISHA
SAMBALPUR
OR09
PUDUCHERRY
PUDUCHERRY
PO01
PUNJAB
AMRITSAR
PB01
PUNJAB
BHATINDA
PB02
PUNJAB
JALANDHAR
PB04
PUNJAB
LUDHIANA
PB05
PUNJAB
PATIALA /FATEHGARH SAHIB
PB08
RAJASTHAN
AJMER
RJ01
RAJASTHAN
ALWAR
RJ02
RAJASTHAN
BIKANER
RJ05
RAJASTHAN
JAIPUR
RJ06
RAJASTHAN
JODHPUR
RJ07
RAJASTHAN
KOTA
RJ08
RAJASTHAN
SIKAR
RJ09
RAJASTHAN
SRIGANGANAGAR
RJ10
RAJASTHAN
UDAIPUR
RJ11
SIKKIM
GANGTOK
SM01
TAMIL NADU
CHENNAI
TN01
TAMIL NADU
COIMBATORE
TN02
TAMIL NADU
CUDDALORE
TN03
TAMIL NADU
KANCHIPURAM
TN05
TAMIL NADU
KANYAKUMARI /NAGERCOIL
TN06
TAMIL NADU
MADURAI
TN08
TAMIL NADU
NAMAKKAL
TN10
TAMIL NADU
SALEM
TN11
TAMIL NADU
THANJAVUR
TN12
TAMIL NADU
THOOTHUKUDI
TN13
TAMIL NADU
TIRUCHIRAPPALLI
TN14
TAMIL NADU
TIRUNELVELI
TN15
TAMIL NADU
TIRUVALLUR
TN16
TAMIL NADU
VELLORE
TN18
TAMIL NADU
VIRUDHUNAGAR
TN20
TELANGANA
HYDERABAD/ SECUNDERABAD/RANGA REDDY
TL01
TELANGANA
KARIMNAGAR
TL02
TELANGANA
KHAMMAM
TL03
TELANGANA
WARANGAL
TL07
TRIPURA
AGARTALA
TA01
UTTAR PRADESH
AGRA
UP01
UTTAR PRADESH
ALIGARH
UP02
UTTAR PRADESH
ALLAHABAD
UP03
UTTAR PRADESH
BAREILLY
UP04
UTTAR PRADESH
GHAZIABAD
UP07
UTTAR PRADESH
GORAKHPUR
UP08
UTTAR PRADESH
JHANSI
UP10
UTTAR PRADESH
KANPUR
UP11
UTTAR PRADESH
LUCKNOW
UP12
UTTAR PRADESH
MEERUT
UP14
UTTAR PRADESH
MORADABAD
UP15
UTTAR PRADESH
MUZAFFARNAGAR
UP16
UTTAR PRADESH
NOIDA /GREATER NOIDA
UP09
UTTAR PRADESH
VARANASI
UP18
UTTARAKHAND
DEHRADUN
UK01
UTTARAKHAND
HALDWANI
UK02
UTTARAKHAND
ROORKEE
UK06
WEST BENGAL
ASANSOL
WB01
WEST BENGAL
BURDWAN(BARDHAMAN)
WB02
WEST BENGAL
DURGAPUR
WB04
WEST BENGAL
HOOGHLY
WB06
WEST BENGAL
HOWRAH
WB07
WEST BENGAL
KALYANI
WB08
WEST BENGAL
KOLKATA
WB10
WEST BENGAL
SILIGURI
WB11
Note:
1. The exact name/location of Examination venue in the Examination city centre will be notified later along with the Roll Number in accordance with the Application Number and Date of Birth and shall be available on NTA website www.nta.ac.in, ntaicar.nic.in.
2. NTA may change/shift the examination city center opted by the candidate to another nearby centre, if number of candidates are more at any city center.
DOMICILE STATE/UTs CODES
Sl.No.
Name of the State/UT
Code Number
1
Andaman & Nicobar
Islands
1
2
Andhra Pradesh
2
3
Arunachal Pradesh
3
4
Assam
4
5
Bihar
5
6
Chandigarh
6
7
Chhattisgarh
7
8
Dadra
& Nagar Haveli & Daman & Diu
8
9
Delhi
10
10
Goa
11
11
Gujarat
12
12
Haryana
13
13
Himachal Pradesh
14
14
Jammu & Kashmir
15
15
Jharkhand
16
16
Karnataka
17
17
Kerala
18
18
Lakshadweep
19
19
Madhya Pradesh
20
20
Maharashtra
21
21
Manipur
22
22
Meghalaya
23
23
Mizoram
24
24
Nagaland
25
25
Odisha
26
26
Puducherry
27
27
Punjab
28
28
Rajasthan
29
29
Sikkim
30
30
Tamil Nadu
31
31
Tripura
32
32
Uttarakhand
33
33
Uttar Pradesh
34
34
West Bengal
35
35
Telangana
36
36
Ladakh (U.T)
37
Degree Programmes for Admission in AIEEA (UG) 2020
Subject Code No.
Degree Programme for Admission
01
B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture
02
B.Sc. (Hons.) Horticulture
03
B.F.Sc.
04
B.Sc. (Hons.) Forestry
05
B.Sc. (Hons.) Community Science
06
Food Nutrition and Dietetics*
07
B.Sc. (Hons.) Sericulture
08
B. Tech. Agricultural Engineering
09
B. Tech. Dairy Technology
10
B. Tech. Food Technology
11
B. Tech. Bio- Technology
Subject to accreditation by National Agricultural Education
Accreditation Board.
Eligibility Qualifications at 10+2 Examination for Degree Programmes
Code No
Degree
Programme for Admission
Subjects
which the candidate must have passed in 10+2 Examination
Subjects
to be attempted in the Entrance Examination
01
B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture
PCB/PCMB/ PCM/Inter-Agriculture
PCB/PCM/PCA/ABC
02
B.Sc. (Hons.) Horticulture
PCB/PCMB/PCM/Inter-Agriculture
PCB/PCM/PCA/ABC
03
B.F.Sc.
PCB/PCMB/ Inter-Agriculture
PCB/PCA/ABC
04
B.Sc. (Hons.) Forestry
PCB/PCMB/ Inter-Agriculture
PCB/PCA/ABC
05
B.Sc. (Hons.) Community Science
PCB/ PCMB/ PCM
PCB/PCM
06
Food Nutrition and Dietetics*
PCB/ PCMB/ PCM
PCB/PCM
07
B.Sc. (Hons.) Sericulture
PCB/ PCMB/ PCM
PCB/PCM
08
B. Tech. Agricultural Engineering
PCM/ PCMB
PCM
09
B. Tech. Dairy Technology
PCM/PCMB
PCM
10
B. Tech. Food Technology
PCM/PCMB
PCM
11
B. Tech. Bio- Technology
PCM/PCMB/PCB
PCM/PCB
Subject to accreditation by National Agricultural Education Accreditation Board.
Note: As per the V Deans Committee Report, Agril. Marketing & Co-operation subject has been dropped for Admission to UG degree program through ICAR- AIEEA-UG w.e.f. the Academic Session 2017-18.
Candidates must ensure that they
1. Fullfill eligibility criteria of choosing the subject combination.
2.. Attemp same combination in the test which they have selected in Application form
Written by Ranker Admin, March 10th, 2020 | No Comments »
A Common Entrance Test, designated as Telangana State Law Common Entrance Test-2020 (TS LAWCET-2020) and Telangana State PG Law Common Entrance Test – 2020 (TS PGLCET-2020) will be conducted by the CONVENER, TS LAWCET/ TS PGLCET-2020, Osmania University, Hyderabad on behalf of the Telangana State Council of Higher Education for admission into 3Year / 5Year LL.B. Regular Courses and 2 year LL.M. Courses in the Colleges of Law in Telangana for the academic year 2020-2021
TS LAWCET & TS PGLCET -2020 IMPORTANT DATES
Sl. No.
ACTIVITY
DATE
1.
Notification of TS LAWCET-2020
02-03-2020
2.
Commencement of Submission & Registration of Online
Application Form with registration fee of Rs.800/- (Rs.500/- for SC/ST &
PH)
06-03-2020
3.
Last Date for Submission & Registration of Online
Application Form
without Late Fee
06-04-2020
4.
Last Date for Submission & Registration of Online
Application Form with Late Fee of Rs.500/-
20-04-2020
5.
Last Date for Submission & Registration of Online
Application Form with Late Fee of Rs.1000/-
30-04-2020
6.
Last Date for Submission & Registration of Online
Application Form with Late Fee of Rs.2000/-
10-05-2020
7.
Last Date for Submission & Registration of Online
Application Form with Late Fee of Rs.4000/-
20-05-2020
8.
Correction of online application data already submitted by the
candidate
11-05-2020
to
16-05-2020
9.
Commencement of Downloading of Hall Tickets
21-05-2020
10.
Date and Time of TS LAWCET-2020 Examination
11.00 am to 12.30 pm
27-05-2020
11.
Announcement of Preliminary Key
31-05-2020
12.
Last Date of Submission of Objections on Preliminary Key
02-06-2020 @ 5PM
13.
Announcement of Final Key and Test Entrance Results (Tentative)
10-06-2020
TS Law Common Entrance Test (TS LAWCET- 2020) for admission into 3 / 5 years law courses (LL.B.) and TS PG Law Common Entrance Test (TSPGLCET-2020) for admission into LL.M courses offered by State Universities in Telangana State including their affiliated colleges for the academic year 2020-21 will be conducted by Osmania University, Hyderabad, Telangana State.
ELIGIBILITY FOR TS LAWCET-2020
EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS
3 years LL.B. Course:
For 3-year LL. B Course, the Candidates should have passed any Graduate Degree (with 10+2+3 pattern) of a recognized University with 45% of aggregate marks for general category, 42% for OBC Category* and 40% for SC/ST or any other examination recognized as equivalent by the Universities concerned and also as per Bar Council of India, Legal Education Rule – 2008 and BCI – Legal Education Committee meeting dated 30th April 2017 (For Clarification visit http://www.barcouncilofindia.org/), if any candidate secured less than 45%,42% and 40% respectively in graduation he should have secured same percentage or more on the aggregate in any additional Graduation or Post Graduation. The candidates who have passed Degree examination by single sitting without undergoing three years course either through regular or private or correspondence and those who obtained the degree through open University directly without having any basic qualification are not eligible as per G.O. Ms No. 31 dated:18-03-2009.
Note:
i) There is a relaxation of 5% of marks in the above qualifying examinations for 3 year Law course in favour of the Candidates belonging to SC/ST Category.
ii) The percentage of 44.5% and above in aggregate in graduation (with 10+2+3 Pattern) in case of candidates belongs to general categories, 41.5% or above in aggregate in graduation (with 10+2+3 Pattern) in case of candidates belongs to OBC category and 39.5% and above in aggregate in graduation (with 10+2+3 Pattern) in case of candidates belongs to SC/ST category will be considered as 45%, 42% and 40% of aggregate marks respectively for admission into LL.B. 3-year course.
iii) The Eligibility criteria are subject to change as per the Government Orders issued from time to time
5 year LL.B. Course:
For 5 year LL.B. Course, the Candidates should have passed two year Intermediate Examination (with 10+2 pattern) with 45% of aggregate marks for general category, 42% for OBC Category* and 40% for SC/ST or any other examination recognized as equivalent by the University concerned or the Board of Intermediate Education, T.S., and also as per Bar Council of India, Legal Education Rule – 2008 (For Clarification of BCI – Legal Education Committee meeting dated 30th April 2017, visit http://www.barcouncilofindia.org/).
Note:
i) There is a relaxation of 5% of marks in the above qualifying examinations for 5 year Law course in favour of the Candidates belonging to SC/ST Category.
ii) The percentage of 44.5% and above in aggregate in Intermediate (with 10+2 Pattern) in case of candidates belongs to general categories, 41.5% or above in aggregate in Intermediate (with 10+2 Pattern) in case of candidates belongs to OBC category and 39.5% and above in aggregate in Intermediate (with 10+2 Pattern) in case of candidates belongs to SC/ST category will be considered as 45%, 42% and 40% respectively for admission into LL. B 5-year course.
iii) The Eligibility criteria are subject to change as per the Government Orders issued from time to time.
Qualifying Marks for TS LAWCET-2020
The qualifying percentage of marks in the Entrance Test is 35% (i.e. 42 marks out of total 120 marks).
For candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes, no minimum qualifying percentage of marks is prescribed.
AGE LIMIT
No Age restriction for the candidates seeking admission into LL. B. Courses, as per the Bar Council of India Lr. No. BCI/D/2337/2018(LE/Cir.4) dated 26.11.2018. The detailed information is available in the official website i.e., http://www.barcouncilofindia.org/
RANKING
The candidates will be ranked in the order of merit based on the marks obtained in the TS LAWCET-2020. In case of tie, the relative rank will be decided as mentioned below:
(i) By considering the marks secured in Part-C of TS LAWCET and if the tie still persists marks obtained in Part-B in TS LAWCET shall be taken into consideration.
(ii) If the tie still persists they may be bracketed together for the purpose of ranking and seniority in age may be considered at the time of admission.
(iii) Rank obtained in TS LAWCET-2020 is valid for admission into 3 year/ 5 year Law Course, as the case may be, for the academic year 2020-2021 only.
SUBMISSION OF ONLINE APPLICATIONS
In terms of orders issued by the Government of Telangana State and the proceedings by Telangana State Council of Higher Education, Hyderabad, ONLINE APPLICATIONS are invited for appearance at the TS Law Common Entrance Test for admission into 1st year LLB (3YDC & 5YDC) and LL.M Course for the academic year 2020-2021.
Online Application Fee
For TS LAWCET – 2020 : Rs.800/- (Rs.500/- in case of SC/ST & PH Candidates)
For TS PGLCET – 2020 : Rs.1000/- (Rs.800/- in case of SC/ST & PH Candidates)
IMPORTANT DATES FOR ONLINE SUBMISSION
1. Date of Commencement of Submission of Online Applications : 06-03-2020
2. Last dates for Submission of Online Applications
a) Without Late Fee : 06-04-2020
b) With a Late fee of Rs.500/- : 20-04-2020
c) With a Late fee of Rs.1,000/- : 30-04-2020
d) With a Late fee of Rs.2,000/- : 10-05-2020
e) With a Late fee of 4,000/- : 20-05-2020
DATE AND TIME OF TS LAWCET & PGLCET-2020
TS LAWCET (LLB 3/5 YDC) : 27-05-2020 (Wednesday) 11.00 am to 12.30 pm
TS PGLCET (LL.M) : 27-05-2020 (Wednesday) 11.00 am to 12.30 pm
MEDIUM OF TEST
English/Telugu and English/Urdu for TS LAWCET-2020
English for TS PGLCET- 2020
REGIONAL TEST CENTERS
The TS LAWCET & PGLCET – 2020 test will be held at the following 18 Regional Online Test Centres in Telangana State and Andhra Pradesh. Convener reserves the right to add or delete any centre from the list and allot accordingly:
S.No.
Telangana
1.
Hyderabad West ( Kukatpally, Patancheru, Gandipet, Moinabad and
surrounding areas)
2.
Hyderabad North (Medchal,Gandimaisamma and surrounding areas)
3.
Hyderabad Central (Abids, Tarnaka and surrounding areas)
4.
Hyderabad East (Ghatkesar, Keesara and surrounding areas)
5.
Hyderabad South-East (L.B. Nagar, Hayathnagar, Pedda Amberpet,
Ibrahimpatnam,
Ramoji Film City area and surrounding areas)
6.
Karimnagar
7.
Khammam
8.
Kodad
9.
Nalgonda
10.
Mahabubnagar
11.
Warangal
12.
Nizamabad
13.
Adilabad
14.
Siddipet(Medak)
Andhra Pradesh
1.
Tirupati
2.
Vijayawada
3.
Visakhapatnam
4.
Kurnool
LAWCET Syllabus
SYLLABUS FOR TS LAWCET-2020 FOR LL.B 3.YDC/5YDC
The Test is designed to evaluate the candidate’s ability and aptitude to pursue the study of Law. The Test consists of three parts. Total number of questions will be 120 and the duration of test is 90 minutes. Maximum marks are 120.
Part – A : Consists of 30 questions carrying 30 marks: General Knowledge and Mental Ability.
Part – B : Consists of 30 questions carrying 30 marks: Current Affairs.
Part – C : Consists of 60 questions carrying 60 marks: Aptitude for the Study of Law.
For 5-year Law Course, the standard expected is of Intermediate level and for 3-year Law Course, the standard expected is of Degree Level.
The questions in Part-C, Aptitude for the study of Law, elementary knowledge of the basic principles of Law and Constitution of India, on the Part of the Student is assumed.
The Questions will be objective type including multiple choices questions, matching items.
Each question contains four alternative answers numbered as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Candidates have to exercise their choice in answering the question.
Written by Ranker Admin, March 05th, 2020 | No Comments »
Engineering, Agriculture and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAMCET) is conducted by Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Kakinada on behalf of APSCHE. This examination is the prerequisite for admission into various professional courses offered in University/ Private Colleges in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
Important Dates :
Activity
Date & Time
Notification
of AP EAMCET – 2020
27.02.2020
Commencement
of Submission of Online application forms
29.02.2020
Last date for
submission of online applications without late fee
29.03.2020
Last date for
submission of online applications with late fee of Rs. 500/-
05.04.2020
Correction of
online application data already submitted by the candidate
06.04.2020 to
09.04.2020
Last date for
submission of online applications with late fee of Rs. 1000/-
10.04.2020
Last date for
receipt of online applications with late fee of Rs. 5000/-
15.04.2020
Downloading of
Hall-tickets from the website https://sche.ap.gov.in/eamcet
16.04.2020 (onwards)
Last date for
receipt of applications with late fee of Rs. 10000/-
19.04.2020
Date of AP
EAMCET Examination (Engineering)
20.04.2020,
21.04.2020, 22.04.2020 & 23.04.2020
Time of
Engineering Examination
10.00 AM to 1.00 PM
& 02.30 PM to 05.30 PM
Date of AP
EAMCET Examination (Agriculture)
23.04.2020 &
24.04.2020
Time of
Agriculture Examination
10.00 AM to 1.00 PM
& 02.30 PM to 05.30 PM
Date of AP
EAMCET Examination (Both Streams)
22.04.2020 &
23.04.2020
Time of
Examination (Both Streams)
10.00 AM to 1.00 PM
& 02.30 PM to 05.30 PM
Declaration of
Preliminary Key (Engineering)
24.04.2020
Declaration of
Preliminary Key (Agriculture)
25.04.2020
Last Date for
receiving of objections on Preliminary Key
28.04.2020 (5.00 PM)
Declaration of
Results
05.05.2020
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
1) The Candidates who wish to apply for APEAMCET-2020 are requested to fill the particulars carefully in the ONLINE APPLICATION FORM. The required information should be collected from the relevant documents.
2) The Candidates are requested to check the filled in particulars before pressing SUBMIT button during online application process.
3) After submission of ONLINE APPLICATION FORM, if any corrections are to be incorporated, candidate has to see the corrections link in Homepage of https://sche.ap.gov.in/eamcet
4) To fill the required details in ONLINE APPLICATION FORM, the following documents may be referred:
S.No
Details Required
Documents to be referred
1
AP Online/ TS Online
Transaction Id. (if payment is being made through AP Online/ TS Online)
Receipt form from AP
Online / TS Online
2
Qualifying
Examination appeared or passed, Hall ticket Number of Qualifying Examination
Marks Memo
/ Hall Ticket of Intermediate (10+2) / Equivalent
3
Stream
Applied for (E), (AM), or both (E & AM)
Eligibility Criteria in the APEAMCET-2020 website
4
Date of
Birth, Birth District, Birth State
Birth
Certificate / SSC or Equivalent Certificate
5
Hall Ticket
Number of SSC or Equivalent examination Certificate
SSC or Equivalent Certificate
6
Local Status
(OU/AU/SVU/ Nonlocal)
The local candidate
certificate issued by MRO or Competent Authority
7
Income of Parents
(Income upto Rs.1.00 Lakh (or) up to Rs.2.00 Lakhs (or) more than Rs. 2.0
lakhs
The Income
certificate issued by Competent Authority
8
STUDY
DETAILS
Study
certificates from Class I to Intermediate (10+2) / Equivalent
9
Category
(SC, ST, BC, etc.) and Application number of the Caste Certificate
The latest Caste Certificate issued by Competent
Authority
10
Special
Category (NCC, PH, Sports, CAP, etc.)
The
Certificate Issued by Competent Authority
11
Aadhaar
Card details
Aadhaar Card
12
Ration Card details
Ration Card
13
Economically Weaker
Sections Certificate details
EWS Certificate
5) Other Information required for filling Online Application
a) Recent passport size digital color photograph (file size less than 30 KB and “.jpg” file format) of candidate for uploading (whose photograph is not available in Intermediate databases) b) Digital Signature of the candidate (file size less than 15 KB and “.jpg” file format) of candidate or uploading (whose Signature is not available in Intermediate databases.) c) Regional Center to which candidate wishes to appear for AP EAMCET-2020 examination. d) Gender (Male / Female/Transgender.) e) Non-Minority / Minority f) Mobile Number of the candidate. g) E-mail of the candidate. h) Place of Education – Municipality / Corporation or Rural area in SSC and Intermediate.
6) It is advised to visit your allotted Examination Center well before so that you can take examination tension – free.
7) The candidate will not be allowed to take the examination even if late by 1minute.
8) The candidate does not have option of choosing specific date / session to appear for the AP EAMCET-2020 entrance examination. This information is known to him / her only after downloading Hall Ticket. For any reason if the candidate fails to appear in the given slot, he / she is treated as absent.
9) The candidate has to submit the “FILLED IN ONLINE APPLICATION FORM” to the invigilator in the Examination Hall on the day of the APEAMCET-2020 exam. Also, affix a recent color photograph (3.5cms x 3.5cms) in the box provided (Bottom – Left side) on the FILLED IN ONLINE APPLICATION FORM and get it attested by a Gazetted Officer / Principal of the college where studied.
10) The candidate belonging to SC / ST category has to submit the attested “CASTE CERTIFICATE” along with the FILLED IN ONLINE APPLICATION FORM” to the Invigilator on day of the APEAMCET2020 exam in the Examination Hall, in case, the Application number of his/her Caste Certificate is not provided at the time of the Online submission of the Application.
* NOTE: For items 5(a) and 5(b), please don’t paste Photograph and Signature on another paper and scan. Instead scan the photograph and Signature as separate files.
AP EAMCET – 2020 (ENGINEERING)
A Common Entrance Test designated as “Engineering, Agriculture & Medical Common Entrance Test” (AP EAMCET – 2020) will be conducted by JNT University Kakinada, KAKINADA for the academic year 2020-2021 for admission into the First Year of Professional Courses i.e (i) Engineering, Bio-Technology, B.Tech. (Dairy Technology), B.Tech. (Agr. Engg.), B.Tech. (Food Science and Technology), (ii) B.Sc. (Ag)/ B.Sc. (Hort)/ B.V.Sc. & A.H/B.F.Sc & (iii) B. Pharmacy, Pharma. D.
I. PARTICULARS OF AP EAMCET – 2020
The Test will be conducted during 20-04-2020 to 23-04-2020 in two sessions every day ie 10.00 A.M. to1.00 P.M. and 2.30 P.M to 5.30 P.M during Online Test mode only.
The Entrance test is conducted in online (Computer Based Examination) only for a during of 3 hour and the question paper consists of total 160 questions comprising of 80 questions in Mathematics, 40 questions in Physics and 40 questions inChemistry.
All questions are of objective type (multiple choice) only and each question carries one mark. The syllabus in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry is furnished in Annexure-I. The model questions are given in Annexure-II.
A sample/mock test will be available on www.sche.ap.gov.in/eamcet website for practice purpose and to give the candidate look and feel of the On- Line (Computer Based)Examination.
II. ELIGIBILITY TO APPEAR FOR AP EAMCET – 2020
Candidates satisfying the following requirements shall be eligible to appear for AP EAMCET-2020:
a. Candidates should be of Indian Nationality or Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) / Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Card Holders.
b. Candidates should belong to the state of Andhra Pradesh / Telangana. The candidates should satisfy Local / Non-Local status requirements as laid down in the Andhra Pradesh / Telangana Educational Institutions (Regulation of Admission) order, 1974 as subsequently amended (See AnnexureIII).
c. For Engineering, B.Pharmacy (M.P.C), Pharma.D, B.Tech. (Dairy), B.Tech. (Agrl. Engineering), B.Tech. [Food Science and Technology (FS & T)], B.Sc. [Agriculture Engg]courses:
(i) Candidates should have passed or appeared for the final year of Intermediate Examination (10+2 pattern) with Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry as optionals or related vocational courses in the fields of Engineering and Technology, conducted by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana, along with bridge course or courses conducted by it for candidates enrolled from academic year 2000 onwards, or any other examination recognized as equivalent thereto by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana.
OR
Candidates should have passed or appeared at the final year of the Diploma examination in Engineering conducted by the State Board of Technical Education and Training, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana or any other examination recognized as equivalent thereto by the State Board of Technical Education and Training, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana.
(ii) a) In the case of Engineering, Pharmacy courses, candidates should have completed 16 years of age as on 31st December of the year of admission (2020). There is no upper age limit. b) In the case of B.Tech. (Dairy Technology), B.Tech. (Agrl. Engineering), B.Tech. (FS & T) and B.Sc. (Agrl. Engg), candidates should have completed 17 years of age as on 31st December of the year of admission (2020) and an upper age limit of 22 years for all the candidates and 25 years in respect of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe candidates as on 31st December of the year of Admissions (2020).
d. (i) For Pharm-D course candidates should have passed or appeared for the final year of Intermediate Examination (10+2 pattern) with Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics as optionals conducted by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana or any other examination recognized by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana, as equivalent thereto or should have passed or appeared at the final year of the Diploma Examination in Pharmacy course conducted by the Andhra Pradesh / Telangana State Board of Technical Education and training.
(ii) Candidate should obtain atleast 45% marks (40% in case of candidate belongs to reserved category) in the subjects specified taken together in the qualifyingexamination.
(iii) The candidates should have completed 17 years of age as on 31st December of the year of admission (2020) to the above course
III. GENERAL INFORMATION / INSTRUCTIONS:
a) The Convener, AP EAMCET – 2020 reserves the right to reject the application of the candidate at anystage, if:
(i) The Online Application Form isincomplete. (ii) The candidate fails to satisfy the eligibilityconditions. (iii) Any false or incorrect information isfurnished. (iv) The Online Application Form is submitted after the duedate. (v) No correspondence will be entertained in thisregard. (b) The Convener is not responsible for non-receipt of application by the notified date and time for any reason
IV. MEDIUM OF ENTRANCETEST:
The question paper contains questions in “English” and “Telugu” medium only. Candidates, who have studied the qualifying examination in Urdu medium and wish to avail assistance for translating the questions into Urdu, will be allotted a Test Centre at Kurnool only.
V. REGISTRATION FEE:
Payment of Registration Fee for submission of Online Application Form is the first step and the Registration Fee is Rs. 500/- which has to be paid through the following modes:
a) AP ONLINE / TS ONLINE
b) CREDIT CARD / DEBIT CARD / NET BANKING
VI. SAME CENTRE FOR CANDIDATES APPEARING FOR BOTH ENGINEERING AND AGRICULTURE & MEDICAL:
Candidates of E – Category who are eligible and desirous of taking the test in AM – Category, in addition to the test for E – Category should select the option Both (E & AM Category) together, during the submission of the Online Application Form, so that same Test Centre can be allotted to them for both the tests. If this instruction is not followed, the candidate may be allotted different Test Centres for E & AM category tests and Convener, AP EAMCET2020 is not responsible in allotment of different centres. VII. REGIONAL CENTRES FOR ENTRANCE TEST:
APEAMCET2018_INSTRUCTION_BOOKLET_ENGINEERING
Districts
Regional Centers
1
2
3
4
5
Anantapur
Anantapur
Gooty
Hindupur
Putaparthy
Chittoor
Chittoor
Madanapalle
Puttur
Tirupati
East Godavari
Amalapuram
Kakinada
Rajahmundry
—
Guntur
Guntur
Narasaraopeta
—
Krishna
Gudlavalleru
Machilipatnam
Mylavaram
Tiruvuru
Vijayawada
Kurnool
Kurnool
Nandyal
Yemmiganur
—
Nellore
Gudur
Kavali
Nellore
—
Prakasam
Chimakurthy
Chirala
Markapuram
Ongole
Srikakulam
Rajam
Srikakulam
Tekkali
—
Visakhapatnam
Anakapalle
Anandapuram
Gajuwaka
Visakhapatnam City
Vizianagaram
Bobbili
Vizianagaram
—
—
West Godavari
Bhimavaram
Eluru
Narasapuram
Tadepalligudem
YSR Kadapa
Kadapa
Proddatur
Rajampeta
—
Hyderabad
LB Nagar
Nacharam
Secunderabad
—
Note:
1. The Convener reserves the right to add or delete some online Test Centers from the list of Regional Centers notified.
2. The Convener reserves the right to allot the candidates to any online Test Centre other than that opted by the candidates.
3. Candidate has to submit not more than one application either for ‘E’ or ‘AM’ or ‘E&AM’ category test. If any candidate submits more than one application for one category, the Convener reserves the right to reject all the applications or accept any one ofthem only.
VIII. SUBMISSION OF ON-LINE APPLICATION FOR AP EAMCET –2020
Application should be submitted through online mode only
The following information must be kept ready for filling the details during Online submission:
a. Hall ticket Number of Qualifying Examination b. Hall ticket Number of S.S.C. or equivalent c. Date of Birth d. Caste in case of SC/ST/BCcandidates e. Aadhar Number f. PH, NCC, Sports etc. g. Income certificate ( Upto One Lakh or Up to Two Lakhs or More than Two Lakhs Rupees) h. Ration Card i. Study or Residence or relevant certificate for proof of local status (last 12years)
Online submission:
For Online submission, visit the website www.sche.ap.gov.in/eamcet. A candidate has to pay Rs.500/- as Registration Fee and late fee (if applicable) by opting any of the following two modes of payment: (a) AP ONLINE / TS ONLINE (b) Debit / Credit Card / Net Banking. After filling the Online Application Form with the required details, the candidate is required to verify all the details carefully and press Submit button. Filled in Online Application Form will be generated which contains Registration Number along with filled in details. The candidate is required to take printout of Filled In Online Application Form and it is to be submitted to the Invigilator during the examination after affixing a recent color photograph duly attested by the Gazetted Officer or Principal of the College where studied qualifying examination. The candidate should use the Registration Number for future correspondence.
IX. Mere appearance and qualifying at AP EAMCET-2020 does not confer any right for admission into professional courses. Candidate has to fulfill the eligibility criteria laid down in the relevant G.O at the time of admission
X. QUALIFYING MARKS FOR AP EAMCET – 2020
The qualifying percentage of marks for the AP EAMCET-2020 is 25% of the maximum marks considered for ranking. However, for candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe, no minimum qualifying mark is prescribed. But their admission will be limited to the extent of seats reserved for such categories (vide G.O.Ms. No. 179, LEN&TE, dated 16.06.1986).
XI. AP EAMCET-2020 RESULTS
1. Evaluation: Every care will be taken to avoid errors in the evaluation, checking, scrutiny, tabulation, normalization and ranking.
2. Ranking:
a. Candidates shall be ranked based on the EAMCET normalized marks (75% weightage) and 10+2 (25% weightage) in the order of merit as explained in the Annexure-IV andAnnexure-V.
b. Rank obtained in AP EAMCET-2020 is valid for admission to the courses mentioned in the application form for the academic year 2020-2021only.
c. Rank card shall be downloaded from the websitewww.sche.ap.gov.in/eamcet
d. Rank obtained with the benefit of relaxation of the minimum qualifying marks at AP EAMCET-2020 by any candidate claiming as SC/ST Category will be cancelled in case the claim is found to be invalid at the time of admission to any course of study in any participating University /Institution.
XII. The candidates should preserve the Filled In Online Application Form, the Hall Ticket and the Rank Card to produce them when called forverification.
XIII. Any malpractice in AP EAMCET-2020 will be dealt with as per rules in force vide G.O.Ms.No: 114, Edn / (IE) Dt: 13th May 1997 for theCET.
XIV. In any litigation concerning AP EAMCET-2020 Test, Convener is the person to sue and be sued. The Convener (Examination), AP EAMCET – 2020 is not responsible for allotment of seats at the time of admissions. The Commissioner of Technical Education, Andhra Pradesh isthe Convener for the Admissions.
XV. Any litigation concerning AP EAMCET-2020 shall be subject to the jurisdiction of the A.P. High Court, Amaravathi only.
XVI. HALL TICKET The candidate should download the Hall Ticket from website http:// www.sche.ap.gov.in/eamcet
XVII. COUNSELLING AND ALLOTMENT OF SEATS
The list of institutions for allotment of candidates with intake in each discipline and category, as per reservations through AP EAMCET – 2020 would be released in the Information Booklet for Counseling in due course and the same information would also be released on website http:// www.sche.ap.gov.in
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Material to be brought on the date of examination
Hall Ticket along with Filled in Online Application Form with duly affixed recent colour photograph attested by Gazetted Officer (or) Principal of the College where candidate has studied the qualifying examination. However, Signature of the candidate and Left Hand Thumb impression in the presence of Invigilator to be captured in the respective places provided in the Filled in Online Application form.
2. Other important instructions
a. Hall ticket issued to the candidate is an important document. Candidates are required to preserve it carefully.
b. Hall ticket is not transferable. Any tampering of Hall Ticket will automatically lead to the disqualification of the candidate
c. Candidate shall arrive at the online examination centre 2 hours before commencement of the examination. This will enable the candidate to familiarize himself/herself with the online examination process.
d. Candidate is not allowed even late by One Minute from the commencement of the onlineexamination.
e. The candidate does not have option of choosing specific date / session to appear for the AP EAMCET2020 entrance examination. This information is known to him / her only after downloading Hall Ticket. For any reason if the candidate fails to appear in the given slot, he / she istreated as absent.
f. Candidates are required to bring the following to the online examination centre: i) Hall Ticket, ii) Filled in Online Application Form, iii) A good Ball Point Pen (for rough work, working sheets will be provided by the Test Centre) and iv) Attested copy of Caste certificate (in case of SC/ST category candidates only).
g. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, Calculators, DocuPen, Slide Rules, Log Tables, Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, printed or written material, bits of papers, mobile phone, pager or any other device, except the Hall Ticket, document as required under point no. 2.(f) inside the Examination Room/Hall. If any candidate is in possession of any of the above items, his/her candidature will be treated as unfair means and his/her current examination will be cancelled & he/she will also be debarred for future examination(s) & the equipment will be seized.
GUIDELINES TO CANDIDATES
1. Please check the Hall ticket carefully for your Name, Date of Birth, Gender, Category, Test Centre Name, Date and Time ofexamination.
2. Candidates are advised to reach the venue at least 2 hours before the examination so as to complete the frisking and registration formalities well before the time. Registration desk will be closed 05 minutes prior to the examination.
3. The candidate must show, on demand, the Hall Ticket for admission in the examination room/hall. A candidate who does not possess the Hall Ticket issued by the Convener, AP EAMCET-2020, shall not be permitted for the examination under any circumstances by the Centre Superintendent.
4. No candidate, under any circumstances, will be allowed to enter the Examination Centre after the commencement of the examination.
5. A seat indicating Hall Ticket number will be allocated to each candidate. Candidate should find out and occupy their allotted seat only. Any candidate found to have changed room or the seat on his/her own other than allotted, his/her candidature shall be cancelled and no plea would be accepted forit.
6. The candidate should ensure that the question paper available on the computer in English and Telugu languages only.
7. No Candidate will be allowed to carry any baggage inside the Examination Centre. The Convener, AP EAMCET-2020 will not be responsible for any belongings stolen or lost at the premises.
8. Smoking and eating is strictly prohibited in the examination room.
9. Tea, coffee, cool drinks or snacks are not allowed to be taken into the examination rooms during examination hours.
10. Approach the Centre Superintendent/Invigilator in the room for any technical assistance, first aid emergency or any other information during the course ofexamination.
11. No candidate, without the special permission of the Centre Superintendent or the Invigilator concerned, will leave his/her seat or Examination Room until the full duration of the Examination. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as instructed by the Centre Superintendent/Invigilators.
12. For any queries or issues regarding computer based examination, the candidates may contact on help line numbers which will be available on www.sche.ap.gov.in/eamcet website lateron
INSTRUCTIONS FOR ON-LINE (COMPUTER BASED) EXAMINATION
The On- Line (Computer Based) Examination will be conducted as per the following schedule.
1. A sample/mock test will be available on www.sche.ap.gov.in/eamcet website for practice purpose and to give the candidate look and feel of the On- Line (Computer Based)Examination.
2. The test will start exactly at the time mentioned in the Hall Ticket and an announcement to this effect will be made by the invigilator.
3. The Entrance test is conducted for a duration of 3 hour and the question paper consists of total 160 questions comprising of 80 questions in Mathematics, 40 questions in Physics and 40 questions in Chemistry. All questions are having equal weightage.
4. There is only one correct response for each question out of four responses given.
5. There is no negative marking and No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for a question.
6. All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the centre and on completion of the test candidates must hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
7. During the examination time, the invigilator will check Hall ticket of the candidate to satisfy himself/herself about the identity of each candidate.
8. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Convener, EAMCET-2020 with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as perrules.
9. The candidates must sign and give his/her Left Hand Thumb impression on the Attendance Sheet at the appropriate place.
AP EAMCET – 2020 (Agriculture and Medical)
ELIGIBILITY TO APPEAR FOR AP EAMCET –2020
Candidates satisfying the following requirements shall be eligible to appear for AP EAMCET-2020:
1. Candidates should be of Indian Nationality or Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) / Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Card Holders.
2. Candidates should belong to the state of Andhra Pradesh / Telangana. The candidates should satisfy Local/Non-Local status requirements as laid down in the Andhra Pradesh / Telangana Educational Institutions (Regulations of Admission) order, 1974 as subsequently amended (SeeAnnexure-III)
Candidates should have passed or appeared for the final year of intermediate examination (10+2 pattern) or any examination recognized as equivalent there to by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana, with any two / three of the subjects indicated against each course noted below:
With any two of the subjects:
B.Sc.(Ag.)
i. Physical Sciences
ii. Biological or Natural Sciences
iii. Agriculture
iv. Vocational Course in Agriculture
B.Sc.(Hort)
same as above
B.V.Sc. & A.H
i. Physical sciences
ii. Biological or Natural Sciences
iii. Vocational Courses in Veterinary Sciences
B.F.Sc.
i. Physical Sciences
ii. Biological or Natural Sciences
iii. Vocational Courses in Fishery Sciences
B.Tech. (FS & T)
i. Mathematics
ii. PhysicalSciences
or
i. Physical Sciences
ii. Biological or Naturalsciences
B.Pharmacy & Pharm-D
i. Mathematics
ii. Physical Sciences
or
i. Physical Sciences
ii. Biological or Natural Sciences
Note:
i) Irrespective of the subjects taken at the qualifying examination, candidates seeking admission to the above courses should appear for Biology, Physics and Chemistry in AP EAMCET -2020.(AM Category).
ii) Candidates should have completed 17years of age as on 31st December of the year of admission (2020) and an upper age limit of 22 years for all the candidates and 25 years in respect of SC/ST candidates as on 31st December of the year of admission (2020).
For B. Pharm Course:
i. Candidates should have passed or appeared for the final year of the intermediate examination (10+2 pattern) with Biology, Physics and Chemistry as optionals, conducted by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana as equivalent thereto.
ii. Candidates should have completed 17 years of age by the date of commencement of admission or on such other date as may be notified by the CET committee. There is no upper agelimit
For B.Tech. (Bio-Technology) Course:
Candidates should have passed or appeared for the final year of the intermediate examination (10+2 pattern) with Biology, Physics and Chemistry as optionals, along with the bridge course examination in mathematics conducted by the Board of Intermediate Education, Govt. of Andhra Pradesh / Telangana shall be eligible.
For Pharm-D Course:
i. Candidates should have passed or appeared for the final year of Intermediate Examination (10+2 pattern) with Physics, Chemistry and Biology as optional conducted by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana or any other examination recognized by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra Pradesh / Telangana as equivalent thereto or should have passed or appeared at the final year of the diploma examination in pharmacy course conducted by the Andhra Pradesh / Telangana State Board of Technical Education and Training or any other examination recognized as equivalent thereto by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra Pradesh /Telangana.
ii. Candidate should obtain at least 45% marks (40% in case of candidate belongs to reserved category) in the subjects specified taken together in the qualifyingexamination.
iii. The candidates should have completed 17 years of age as on 31st December of the year of admission (2020) to the above course.
N C C PRIORITIES IN RESPECT OF GO.MS.NO:75, HEALTH,MEDICAL AND FAMILY WELFARE(C1) DEPARTMENT, DATED: 08.09.2015.FOR EAMCET ADMISSIONS
SL. No
BASIC NCC CERTIFI CATE
CAMP CERTIFICATE
PRIORITY AS PER G.O
1
C
NCC CADETS PARTICIPATING AT INTERNATIONAL LEVEL SELCETED
FOR THE YOUTH EXCHANGE PROGRAMME
P I (a)+ C
2
B
NCC CADETS PARTICIPATING AT INTERNATIONAL LEVEL SELCETED
FOR THE YOUTH EXCHANGE PROGRAMME
P I (a)+ B
3
A
NCC CADETS PARTICIPATING AT INTERNATIONAL LEVEL SELCETED
FOR THE YOUTH EXCHANGE PROGRAMME
P I (a)+ A
4
C
NCC CADETS PARTICIPATING AT INTERNATIONAL LEVEL E VENTS IN
SHOOTING/SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING &
KAYAKING/MOOUNTAINEEING/SKYDIVING/PARA
JUMPS/PARA SAILING/EQUESTRAIN.
P I (b)+ C
5
B
NCC CADETS PARTICIPATING AT INTERNATIONAL LEVEL E VENTS IN
SHOOTING/SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING &
KAYAKING/MOOUNTAINEEING/SKYDIVING/PARA
JUMPS/PARA SAILING/EQUESTRAIN
P I (b)+ B
6
A
NCC CADETS PARTICIPATING AT INTERNATIONAL LEVEL E VENTS IN
SHOOTING/SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING &
KAYAKING/MOOUNTAINEEING/SKYDIVING/PARA
JUMPS/PARA SAILING/EQUESTRAIN
P I (b)+ A
7
C
NCC CANDETS THE WINNERS
OF GALLANTRY/NATIONAL BRAVERY AWARDS/RAKSHA MANTRI PADAK
P I (c)+ C
8
B
NCC CANDETS THE WINNERS
OF GALLANTRY/NATIONAL BRAVERY AWARDS/RAKSHA MANTRI PADAK
P I (c)+ B
9
A
NCC CANDETS THE WINNERS
OF GALLANTRY/NATIONAL BRAVERY AWARDS/RAKSHA MANTRI PADAK
P I (c)+ A
10
C
MEDIAL WINNERS IN REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI IN ANY EVENT
P II (a) + GOLD + C
11
B
MEDIAL WINNERS IN REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI IN ANY EVENT
P II (a) + GOLD + B
12
A
MEDIAL WINNERS IN REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI IN ANY EVENT
P II (a) + GOLD + A
13
C
MEDIAL WINNERS IN REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI IN ANY EVENT
P II (a) + SILVER+ C
14
B
MEDIAL WINNERS IN REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI IN ANY EVENT
P II (a) + SILVER + B
15
A
MEDIAL WINNERS IN REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI IN ANY EVENT
P II (a) + SILVER+ A
16
C
MEDIAL WINNERS IN REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI IN ANY EVENT
P II (a) + BRONZE+ C
17
B
MEDIAL WINNERS IN REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI IN ANY EVENT
P II (a) + BRONZE + B
18
A
MEDIAL WINNERS IN REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI IN ANY EVENT
P II (a) + BRONZE+ A
19
C
NCC CADETS PARTICIPATING AT REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI
P II(b) + C
20
B
NCC CADETS PARTICIPATING AT REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI
P II(b) + B
21
A
NCC CADETS PARTICIPATING AT REPUBLIC DAY CAMP AT NEW DELHI
P II(b) + A
22
C
MEDAL WINNERS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC FOR REPUBLIC DAY BANNER
COMPETITION
P II (c) + GOLD + C
23
B
MEDAL WINNERS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC FOR REPUBLIC DAY BANNER
COMPETITION
P II (c) + GOLD + B
24
A
MEDAL WINNERS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC FOR REPUBLIC DAY BANNER
COMPETITION
P II (c) + GOLD + A
25
C
MEDAL WINNERS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC FOR REPUBLIC DAY BANNER
COMPETITION
P II (c) + SILVER + C
26
B
MEDAL WINNERS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC FOR REPUBLIC DAY BANNER
COMPETITION
P II (c) + SILVER + B
27
A
MEDAL WINNERS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC FOR REPUBLIC DAY BANNER
COMPETITION
P II (c) + SILVER + A
28
C
MEDAL WINNERS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC FOR REPUBLIC DAY BANNER
COMPETITION
P II (c) + BRONZE + C
29
B
MEDAL WINNERS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC FOR REPUBLIC DAY BANNER
COMPETITION
P II (c) + BRONZE + B
30
A
MEDAL WINNERS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC FOR REPUBLIC DAY BANNER
COMPETITION
P II (c) + BRONZE + A
31
C
PARTICIPANTS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC
P II (d) + C
32
B
PARTICIPANTS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC
P II (d) + B
33
A
PARTICIPANTS IN ALL INDIA TSC/NSC/VSC
P II (d) + A
34
C
MEDAL WINNERS IN PARA
JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING &
KAYAKING/SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAIN CONDCUTED BY THE
RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL/NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL
LEVEL
P II (e) + GOLD + C
35
B
MEDAL WINNERS IN PARA
JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING &
KAYAKING/SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAIN CONDCUTED BY THE
RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL/NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL
LEVEL
P II (e) + GOLD + B
36
A
MEDAL WINNERS IN PARA
JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING &
KAYAKING/SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAIN CONDCUTED BY THE
RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL/NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL
LEVEL
P II (e) + GOLD + A
37
C
MEDAL WINNERS IN PARA
JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING &
KAYAKING/SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAIN CONDCUTED BY THE
RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL/NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL
LEVEL
P II (e) + SILVER + C
38
B
MEDAL WINNERS IN PARA
JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING &
KAYAKING/SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAIN CONDCUTED BY THE
RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL/NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL
LEVEL
P II (e) + SILVER + B
39
A
MEDAL WINNERS IN PARA
JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING &
KAYAKING/SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAIN CONDCUTED BY THE
RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL/NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL
LEVEL
P II (e) + SILVER + A
40
C
MEDAL WINNERS IN PARA
JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING &
KAYAKING/SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAIN CONDCUTED BY THE
RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL/NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL
LEVEL
P II (e) + BRONZE + C
41
B
MEDAL WINNERS IN PARA
JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING &
KAYAKING/SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAIN CONDCUTED BY THE
RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL/NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL
LEVEL
P II (e) + BRONZE + B
42
A
MEDAL WINNERS IN PARA
JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING &
KAYAKING/SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAIN CONDCUTED BY THE
RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL/NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL
LEVEL
P II (e) + BRONZE + A
43
C
PARTICIPANTS OF PARA
JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING &
KAYAKING / SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAINS CONDUCTED BY THE
RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL / NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL
LEVEL
P II (f) + C
44
B
PARTICIPANTS OF PARA
JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING &
KAYAKING / SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAINS CONDUCTED BY THE
RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL / NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL
LEVEL
P II (f) + B
45
A
PARTICIPANTS OF PARA
JUMPS/SKYDIVING/MOUNTAINEERING/SAILING/PARA SAILING/RAFTING/CANOEING &
KAYAKING / SHOOTING
COMPETITIONS/EQUESTRAINS CONDUCTED BY THE
RESPECTIVE FEDERATIONS/ASSOCIATIONS AT NATIONAL LEVEL / NCC GAMES AT NATIONAL
LEVEL
P II (f) + A
46
C
NATIONAL INTERGRATION CAMP AT ANDAMAN & NICOBAR ISLANDS,
LEH, NER AND SRINAGAR
P II (g) + C
47
B
NATIONAL INTERGRATION CAMP AT ANDAMAN & NICOBAR ISLANDS,
LEH, NER AND SRINAGAR
P II (g) + B
48
A
NATIONAL INTERGRATION CAMP AT ANDAMAN & NICOBAR ISLANDS,
LEH, NER AND SRINAGAR
P II (g) + A
49
C
PARTICIPANTS AT REPUBLIC DAY PARADE AT STATE LEVEL
P III(a) + C
50
B
PARTICIPANTS AT REPUBLIC DAY PARADE AT STATE LEVEL
P III(a) + B
51
A
PARTICIPANTS AT REPUBLIC DAY PARADE AT STATE LEVEL
P III(a) + A
52
C
PARTICPANTS AT INDEPENDENCE DAY PARADE AT STATE LEVEL
P III(b) + C
53
B
PARTICPANTS AT INDEPENDENCE DAY PARADE AT STATE LEVEL
P III(b) + B
54
A
PARTICPANTS AT INDEPENDENCE DAY PARADE AT STATE LEVEL
P III(b) + A
55
C
C – CERTIFICATE HOLDER
P III(c) + C
56
B
B – CERTIFICATE HOLDER
P III(c) + B
57
A
A – CERTIFICATE HOLDER
P III(c) + A
N C C PRIORITIES IN RESPECT OF GO.MS.NO:75, HEALTH,MEDICAL AND FAMILY WELFARE(C1) DEPARTMENT, DATED: 08.09.2015.FOR EAMCET ADMISSIONS
NOTE
1)
Priority will be Considered for Certificates attained prior to
appearing in the qualifying exam.
2)
The N.C.C. Directorate, Andhra Pradesh shall be responsible to
draw a merit list in respect of N.C.C. cadets
seeking admission under
N.C.C. quota for all the categories.
3)
In case of tie, EAMCET merit will be the deciding factor for
position in the merit list under N.C.C category.
4)
Only N.C.C. Certificates issued by N.C.C. Authorities shall be
valid.
CAP PRIORITIES IN RESPECT OF GO.MS.NO.59 HOME (SERVICES.IV) DEPARMTNET DT:16-05-2018 FOR ADMISSIONS INTO PROFESSIONAL COURSES
SL.NO
CATEGORY
Existing priority
Merit no. priorities
1
Widows / Wards of Defence personnel killed in action
I
1
2
Wards of disabled in action and boarded out from service
II
2
3
Widows/Wards of Defence Personnel who died while in service
with death attributable to military service.
III
3
4
Wards of disabled in service and boarded out with disability
attributable to military service
IV
4
5
Wards of Ex-Servicemen and serving personnel who are in receipt
of Gallantry Awards :
V
5
i) Param Vir Chakra
V
5
ii) Ashok Chakra
V
5
iii) Sarvottam Yudh Seva Medal
V
5
iv) Maha Vir Chakra
V
5
v) Kirti Chakra
V
5
vi) Uttam Yudh Seva Medal
V
5
vii) Vir Chakra
V
5
viii) Shaurya Chakra
V
5
ix) Yudh Seva Medal
V
5
x) Sena, Nau sena, Vayu Sena Medal
V
5
xi) Mention-in-Despatches.
V
5
6
Wards of Ex-Servicemen
VI
6
7
Wives of :
VII
7
i) Defence personnel disabled in action and boarded out from
service
VII
7
ii) Defence personnel disabled in service and boarded out with
disability attributable to military service
VII
7
iii) Ex-Servicemen and serving personnel who are in receipt of
Gallantry Awards
VII
7
8
Wards of Serving Personnel
VIII
8
9
Wives of Serving Personnel
IX
9
NOTE: CAP category candidates have to produce a certificate issued by Zilla Sainik Welfare Officer (In case of Ex-Service Men), Identity Card and Discharge Book for verification. Candidates whose parents are domicile of A.P. are only eligible to be considered under “CAP” Category.
SPORTS & GAMES PRIORITIES IN RESPECT OF GO.MS.NO.10 DT:15-7-2008 YOUTH ADVANCEMENT, TOURISM & CULTURE (SPORTS) DEPARTMENT
SLNO
Paticipation event
Existing priority as per Go
Merit order No.
1
Gold Medal in Olympic Games (Senior Category) / Individual
1
1
2
Gold Medal in Olympic Games (Senior Category) / Team
2
3
Silver Medal in Olympic Games (Senior Category ) / Individual
2
3
4
Silver Medal in Olympic Games (Senior Category ) / Team
4
5
Bronze Medal in Olympic Games (Senior Category ) / Individual
3
5
6
Bronze Medal in Olympic Games (Senior Category ) / Team
6
7
Gold Medal in World Championship / Cup for Seniors – Grand Slam
Tennis. (Senior Category ) / Individual
4
7
8
Gold Medal in World Championship / Cup for Seniors – Grand Slam
Tennis. (Senior Category ) / Team
8
9
Silver Medal in World Championship / Cup for Seniors – world
no.2 in Tennis (Senior Category ) / Individual
5
9
10
Silver Medal in World Championship / Cup for Seniors – world
no.2 in Tennis (Senior Category ) / Team
10
11
Bronze Medal in World Championship / Cup for Seniors – world
no.3 in Tennis (Senior Category ) / Individual
6
11
12
Bronze Medal in World Championship / Cup for Seniors – world
no.3 in Tennis (Senior Category ) / Team
12
13
Gold Medal in World Universiad / All England Badminton
Championship – Davis Cup – Afro – Asian Games (Senior Category) /
Individual
7
13
14
Gold Medal in World Universiad / All England Badminton
Championship – Davis Cup – Afro – Asian Games (Senior Category) /
Team
14
15
Silver Medal in World Universiad / All England Championship –
Davis Cup – Afro – Asian Games (Senior Category) / Individual
8
15
16
Silver Medal in World Universiad / All England Championship –
Davis Cup – Afro – Asian Games (Senior Category) / Team
16
17
Bronze Medal in World Universiad / All England Championship –
Davis Cup – Afro – Asian Games (Senior Category) / Individual
9
17
18
Bronze Medal in World Universiad / All England Championship –
Davis Cup – Afro – Asian Games (Senior Category) / Team
18
19
Participation in Olympic Games – World Championship / Cup –
Wimbledon – U.S Open – French Open – Australian Open
(Senior Category) / Individual
10
19
20
Participation in Olympic Games – World Championship / Cup –
Wimbledon – U.S Open – French Open – Australian Open
(Senior Category) / Team
20
21
Participation in World Universiad – Davis Cup – Afro – Asian
Games (Senior Category) / Individual
11
21
22
Participation in World Universiad – Davis Cup – Afro – Asian
Games (Senior Category) / Team
22
23
Gold Medal in Asian Games – Commonwealth Games. (Senior
Category) / Individual
12
23
24
Gold Medal in Asian Games – Commonwealth Games. (Senior
Category) / Team
24
25
Silver Medal in Asian Games – Commonwealth Games. (Senior
Category) / Individual
13
25
26
Silver Medal in Asian Games – Commonwealth Games. (Senior
Category) / Team
26
27
Bronze Medal in Asian Games – Commonwealth Games. (Senior
Category) / Individual
14
27
28
Bronze Medal in Asian Games – Commonwealth Games. (Senior
Category) / Team
28
29
Gold Medal in Asian Championship – Commonwealth Championship – Asia Pacific
Championship.(Senior Category ) / Individual
15
29
30
Gold Medal in Asian Championship – Commonwealth Championship – Asia Pacific
Championship.(Senior Category ) / Team
30
31
Silver Medal in Asian Championship – Commonwealth Championship – Asia Pacific
Championship.(Senior Category ) /
Individual
16
31
32
Silver Medal in Asian Championship – Commonwealth Championship – Asia Pacific
Championship.(Senior Category ) / Team
32
33
Bronze Medal in Asian Championship – Commonwealth Championship – Asia Pacific
Championship.(Senior Category ) /
Individual
17
33
34
Bronze Medal in Asian Championship – Commonwealth Championship – Asia Pacific
Championship.(Senior Category ) / Team
34
35
Participation in Asian Games – Commonwealth Games (Senior
Category ) / Individual
18
35
36
Participation in Asian Games – Commonwealth Games (Senior
Category ) / Team
36
37
Gold Medal in SAF Games – SAARC Championship (Senior Category )
/ Individual
19
37
38
Gold Medal in SAF Games – SAARC Championship (Senior Category )
/ Team
38
39
Silver Medal in SAF Games – SAARC Championship (Senior Category
) / Individual
20
39
40
Silver Medal in SAF Games – SAARC Championship (Senior Category
) / Team
40
41
Bronze Medal in SAF Games – SAARC Championship (Senior Category
) / Individual
21
41
42
Bronze Medal in SAF Games – SAARC Championship (Senior Category
) / Team.
42
43
Participation in Asian Championship – Commonwealth Championship
– Asia Pacific Championship (Senior Category ) /
Individual
22
43
44
Participation in Asian Championship – Commonwealth Championship
– Asia Pacific Championship (Senior Category ) / Team
44
45
Gold Medal in National Championship – National Games – Inter
State – Inter Zonal – Open Nationals for Seniors – Federation
Cup. (Senior Category )/ Individual
23
45
46
Gold Medal in National Championship – National Games – Inter
State – Inter Zonal – Open Nationals for Seniors – Federation Cup. (Senior
Category )/ Team
46
47
Silver Medal in National Championship – National Games – Inter
State – Inter Zonal – Open Nationals for Seniors – Federation Cup. (Senior
Category )/ Individual
24
47
48
Silver Medal in National Championship – National Games – Inter
State – Inter Zonal – Open Nationals for Seniors – Federation
Cup. (Senior Category )/ Team
48
49
Bronze Medal in National
Championship – National Games – Inter State – Inter Zonal – Open Nationals
for Seniors – Federation Cup. (Senior Category )/ Individual
25
49
50
Bronze Medal in National
Championship – National Games – Inter State – Inter Zonal – Open Nationals
for Seniors – Federation Cup. (Senior Category )/ Team
50
51
Participation in S.A.F Games – SAARC Championship (Senior Category ) / Individual
26
51
52
Participation in S.A.F Games – SAARC Championship (Senior Category ) / Team
52
53
Participation in National Championship – National Games – Inter
State – Inter Zonal – Open Nationals for Seniors – Federation
Cup. (Senior Category ) / Individual
27
53
54
Participation in National Championship – National Games – Inter
State – Inter Zonal – Open Nationals for Seniors – Federation Cup. (Senior
Category ) / Team
54
55
Gold Medal in World Championship / Cup for Juniors / World
School Games. (Junior Category )/ Individual
28
55
56
Gold Medal in World Championship / Cup for Juniors / World
School Games. (Junior Category )/ Team
56
57
Silver Medal in World Championship / Cup for Juniors / World
School Games. (Junior Category )/ Individual
29
57
58
Silver Medal in World Championship / Cup for Juniors / World
School Games. (Junior Category )/ Team
58
59
Bronze Medal in World Championship / Cup for Juniors / World
School Games. (Junior Category )/ Individual
30
59
60
Bronze Medal in World Championship / Cup for Juniors / World
School Games. (Junior Category )/ Team
60
61
Gold Medal in Asian Championship for Juniors – Asian School
Games (Junior Category ) / Individual
31
61
62
Gold Medal in Asian Championship for Juniors – Asian School
Games (Junior Category ) /Team
62
63
Silver Medal in Asian Championship for Juniors – Asian School
Games (Junior Category ) / Individual
32
63
64
Silver Medal in Asian Championship for Juniors – Asian School
Games (Junior Category ) / Team
64
65
Bronze Medal in Asian Championship for Juniors – Asian School
Games (Junior Category ) / Individual
33
65
66
Bronze Medal in Asian Championship for Juniors – Asian School
Games (Junior Category ) / Team
66
67
Participation in World Championship / Cup for Juniors / World
School Games (Junior Category ) / Individual
34
67
68
Participation in World Championship / Cup for Juniors / World
School Games (Junior Category ) / Team
68
69
Participation in Asian Championship for Juniors – Asian School
Games (Junior Category ) / Individual
35
69
70
Participation in Asian Championship for Juniors – Asian School
Games (Junior Category ) / Team
70
71
Gold Medal /First Place in the All India Inter University
Championship./ Individual
36
71
72
Gold Medal /First Place in the All India Inter University
Championship./ Team
72
73
Silver Medal /Second Place in the All India Inter University
Championship./ Individual
37
73
74
Silver Medal /Second Place in the All India Inter University
Championship./Team
74
75
Bronze Medal /Third Place in the All India Inter University
Championship./ Individual
38
75
76
Bronze Medal /Third Place in the All India Inter University
Championship./ Team
76
77
Gold Medal / First place in the National Championship for
Juniors/Youth National Games/ Individual
39
77
78
Gold Medal / First place in the National Championship for
Juniors/Youth National Games/ Team
78
79
Silver Medal / Second place in the National Championship for
Juniors/Youth National Games/ Individual
40
79
80
Silver Medal / Second place in the National Championship for
Juniors/Youth National Games/ Team
80
81
Bronze Medal / Third place in the National Championship for
Juniors/Youth National Games/ Individual
41
81
82
Bronze Medal / Third place in the National Championship for
Juniors/Youth National Games/ Team
82
83
Gold Medal in South Zone for Seniors / Individual
42
83
84
Gold Medal in South Zone for Seniors / Team
84
85
Silver Medal in South Zone for Seniors / Individual
43
85
86
Silver Medal in South Zone for Seniors / Team
86
87
Bronze Medal in South Zone for Seniors / Individual
44
87
88
Bronze Medal in South Zone for Seniors / Team
88
89
Participation in the All India Inter University Tournament
/Individual
45
89
90
Participation in the All India Inter University Tournament
/Team
90
91
Participation in the National Championship for Juniors – Youth
National Games. / Individual
46
91
92
Participation in the National Championship for Juniors – Youth
National Games. / Team
92
93
First place in Zonal Inter University Championship/ Individual
47
93
94
First place in Zonal Inter University Championship/ Team
94
95
Second place in Zonal Inter University Championship/ Individual
48
95
96
Second place in Zonal Inter University Championship/ Team
96
97
Third place in Zonal Inter University Championship/ Individual
49
97
98
Third place in Zonal Inter University Championship/ Team
98
99
Participation in South Zone Senior Championship / Individual
50
99
100
Participation in South Zone Senior Championship / Team
100
101
Participation in Zonal Inter
University Championship / Individual
51
101
102
Participation in Zonal Inter
University Championship / Team
102
103
Gold Medal in South Zone for Juniors / Individual
51 (a)
103
104
Gold Medal in South Zone for Juniors / Team
104
105
Silver Medal in South Zone for Juniors / Individual
51 (b)
105
106
Silver Medal in South Zone for Juniors / Team
106
107
Bronze Medal in South Zone for Juniors / Individual
51 (c)
107
108
Bronze Medal in South Zone for Juniors / Team
108
109
Gold Medal / First place in the National Sports Festival for
Women/ Individual
52
109
110
Gold Medal / First place in the National Sports Festival for
Women/ Team
110
111
Silver Medal / Second place in the National Sports Festival for
Women/ Individual
53
111
112
Silver Medal / Second place in the National Sports Festival for
Women/ Team
112
113
Bronze Medal / Third place in the National Sports Festival for
Women/ Individual
54
113
114
Bronze Medal / Third place in the National Sports Festival for
Women/ Team
114
115
Gold Medal in World Championship / Cup for sub-juniors /
Individual
55
115
116
Gold Medal in World Championship / Cup for sub-juniors / Team
116
117
Silver Medal in World Championship / Cup for sub-juniors /
Individual
56
117
118
Silver Medal in World Championship / Cup for sub-juniors / Team
118
119
Bronze Medal in World Championship / Cup for sub-juniors /
Individual
57
119
120
Bronze Medal in World Championship / Cup for sub-juniors / Team
120
121
Gold Medal in National School Games u-19 & U-17 /
individual
58
121
122
Gold Medal in National School Games u-19 & U-17 / Team
122
123
Silver Medal in National School Games u-19 & U-17 /
individual
59
123
124
Silver Medal in National School Games u-19 & U-17 / Team
124
125
Bronze Medal in National School Games u-19 & U-17 /
individual
60
125
126
Bronze Medal in National School Games u-19 & U-17 / Team
126
127
First place in all India CBSE & ICSE / Individual
61
127
128
First place in all India CBSE & ICSE / Team
128
129
Second place in all India CBSE & ICSE / Individual
62
129
130
Second place in all India CBSE & ICSE / Team
130
131
Third place in all India CBSE & ICSE / Individual
63
131
132
Third place in all India CBSE & ICSE / Team
132
133
Gold Medal / First place in All India Rural Sports Tournaments
/ Individual
64
133
134
Gold Medal / First place in All India Rural Sports Tournaments
/ Team
134
135
Silver Medal / Second place in All India Rural Sports
Tournaments / Individual
65
135
136
Silver Medal / Second place in All India Rural Sports
Tournaments / Team
136
137
Bronze Medal / Third place in All India Rural Sports
Tournaments / Individual
66
137
138
Bronze Medal / Third place in All India Rural Sports
Tournaments / Team
138
139
Participation is South Zone Juniors / Individual
66 (a)
139
140
Participation is South Zone Juniors / Team
140
141
Gold Medal / First place in Inter District for Seniors/
Individual
67
141
142
Gold Medal / First place in Inter District for Seniors/ Team
142
143
Silver Medal / Second place in Inter District for Seniors/
Individual
68
143
144
Silver Medal / Second place in Inter District for Seniors/ Team
144
145
Bronze Medal / Third place in Inter District for Seniors/
Individual
69
145
146
Bronze Medal / Third place in Inter District for Seniors/ Team
146
147
Participation in the World Championship for Sub-Juniors /
Individual
70
147
148
Participation in the World Championship for Sub-Juniors / Team
148
149
Participation in National Championship for Women / Individual
71
149
150
Participation in National Championship for Women / Team
150
151
Participation in National School Games / Individual
72
151
152
Participation in National School Games / Team
152
153
Participation in All India CBSE & ICSE / Individual
73
153
154
Participation in All India CBSE & ICSE / Team
154
155
Participation in All India Rural Sports / Individual
74
155
156
Participation in All India Rural Sports / Team
156
157
First place in Inter District for Juniors / Individual
75
157
158
First place in Inter District for Juniors / Team
158
159
Second place in Inter District for Juniors / Individual
76
159
160
Second place in Inter District for Juniors / Team
160
161
Third place in Inter District for Juniors / Individual
77
161
162
Third place in Inter District for Juniors / Team
162
163
First place in State / Inter District Women Sports Festival /
Individual
78
163
164
First place in State / Inter District Women Sports Festival
/ Team
164
165
Second place in State / Inter District Women Sports Festival /
Individual
79
165
166
Second place in State / Inter District Women Sports Festival /
Team
166
167
Third place in State / Inter District Women Sports Festival /
Individual
80
167
168
Third place in State / Inter District Women Sports Festival /
Team
168
169
First place in the Inter Collegiate Competition / First place
in state level inter polytechnic sports & games meet / Individual
81
169
170
First place in the Inter Collegiate Competition / First place
in state level inter polytechnic sports & games meet / Team
170
171
Second place in the Inter Collegiate Competition /Second place
in state level inter polytechnic sports & games meet / Individual
82
171
172
Second place in the Inter Collegiate Competition /Second place
in state level inter polytechnic sports & games meet / Team
172
173
Third place in the Inter Collegiate Competition / Third place
in state level inter polytechnic sports & games meet / Individual
83
173
174
Third place in the Inter Collegiate Competition / Third place
in state level inter polytechnic sports & games meet /Team
174
175
First place in State / Inter District Rural Sports Tournament /
Individual
84
175
176
First place in State / Inter District Rural Sports Tournament /
Team
176
177
Second place in State / Inter District Rural Sports Tournament
/ Individual
85
177
178
Second place in State / Inter District Rural Sports Tournament
/ Team
178
179
Third place in State / Inter District Rural Sports Tournament /
Individual
86
179
180
Third place in State / Inter District Rural Sports Tournament /
Team
180
181
Participation in State / Inter District Championship for
Seniors / Individual
87
181
182
Participation in State / Inter District Championship for
Seniors / Team
182
183
Participation in State / Inter District Championship for Youth
& Juniors / Individual
88
183
184
Participation in State / Inter District Championship for Youth
& Juniors / Team
184
185
Participation in State / Inter District Championship for Women
Sports Festival / Individual
89
185
186
Participation in State / Inter District Championship for Women
Sports Festival / Team
186
187
Participation in the Inter Collegiate competition /
Participation in State Level Inter Plytechnic Sports & Games Meet /
Individual
89 (a)
187
188
Participation in the Inter Collegiate competition /
Participation in State Level Inter Plytechnic Sports & Games Meet / Team
188
189
Participation in State /
Inter District Championship for School Games U-19, U-17, CBSE, ICSE &
Rural Sports/ Individual
90
189
190
Participation in State /
Inter District Championship for School Games U-19, U-17, CBSE, ICSE &
Rural Sports/ Team
190
THE FOLLOWING GAMES & SPORTS ONLY WILL BE CONSIDERED UNDER SPORTS & GAMES CATEGORY IN RESPECT OF GO.MS.NO.10 DATED:15-7-2008 OF YOUTH ADVANCEMENT TOURISM & CULTURE (SPORTS ) DEPARTMENT
1
Archery
15
Kho-Kho
2
Atheletics
16
Roller Skating
3
Basket ball
17
Rowing
4
Boxing
18
Salling / Yatching
5
Chess
19
Shooting
6
Cricket
20
Shuttle Badmitton
7
Cycling
21
Soft Ball
8
Fencing
22
Swimming
9
Foot Ball
23
Table Tennis
10
Gymnestics
24
Taewando
11
Hand Ball
25
Tennis
12
Hockey
26
Volley Ball
13
Judo
27
Weight-lifting
14
Khabadi
28
Wrestling
29
Ball Badminton
THE FOLLOWING CLAUSES SHALL BE TAKEN INTO CONSIDERATION IN THE COURSE OF SPORTS & GAMES ADMISSIONS IN RESPECT OF GO.MS.NO.10 DATED:15-7-2008 OF YOUTH ADVANCEMENT TOURISM & CULTURE (SPORTS ) DEPARTMENT
a)
Preference shall be given
to the performance and participation in individual disciplines over team
disciplines within in a priority.
b)
Date of Birth shall be
tallied proportionately to the category of age group vis-à-vis the concerned
sport. The date of birth certificate issued by the Board of Secondary
Education/ Similar Boards of Central / State Governments only shall be
entertained as proof of age;
c)
Admission shall be given to
the candidates on their current sports performance, which will be to a
maximum of 3 years.
d)
The sports qualification,
acquired between the period from the 10th /Inter/Diploma/Degree Examniation,
as the case may be, and the respective Common Entrance Test, shall also be
taken into consideration for extending sports quota to meritorious sportspersons,
subject to the maximum period mentioned at provision (c) above;
e)
Representation in the
approved games and sports after qualifying at relevant Common Entrance Test
shall not be considred;
f)
In case of a tie between
two or more candidates, for the sports quota reservation for the same seat,
rank at “Common Entrance Test” will prevail’
g)
No preference shall be
given to the candidates having represented more than one game or sport. The priority will be decided based on the
highest entitlement from among the priorities admissible to a particular
candidate based on his/her representation in different games/sports;
h)
The decision of sports
Authority of Telangana/Andhra Pradesh is final and for scrutiny of claims by
sports Authority of Telangana/Andhra Pradesh, the candidates shall submit
information as called for in the format prescribed by sports Authority.
Written by Ranker Admin, March 04th, 2020 | No Comments »
The UGEE mode is for admission to dual degree programmes. Graduates of the dual degree programmes earn two degrees: B.Tech and MS. The Masters degree requires completion of a research thesis. The programme prepares students for research-oriented jobs and higher studies. The duration of the programme is 5-years.
Eligibility Criteria :
Class 12 or equivalent qualifying examination with an aggregate of 60% marks in Maths, Physics and Chemistry.
Exam :
Applicants in this mode need to appear for a computer-based undergraduate entrance examination (UGEE) conducted by IIIT Hyderabad. UGEE will be held across multiple cities (List of Centers ). This exam has two sections:
a) SUPR – Subject Proficiency test for 60 minutes.
b) REAP – Research Aptitude Test for 120 minutes.
Date of the examination: 26th April 2020
Time of the examination: 9.00AM to 12.00noon
Reporting Time: 8.00AM
IMPORTANT DATES :
Events
Dates
Application
Portal Opens
6th Feb 2020
Application
Portal Closes
31st Mar 2020
Entrance
Exam
26th Apr 2020
Admit cards
will be available from
13th Apr 2020
Interviews
First week of June 2020
Exam Center List
S.No
State
City
1
Andhra Pradesh
Vijayawada
2
Andhra Pradesh
Visakhapatnam
3
Andhra Pradesh
Kadapa
4
Andhra Pradesh
Tirupathi
5
Andhra Pradesh
Kurnool
6
Andhra Pradesh
Guntur
7
Andhra Pradesh
Rajahmundry
8
Andhra Pradesh
Nellore
9
Andhra Pradesh
Kakinada
10
Arunachal Pradesh
Itanagar
11
Assam
Guwahati
12
Bihar
Patna
13
Chandigarh
Chandigarh
14
Chhattisgarh
Bhilai Nagar
15
Delhi
New Delhi
16
Goa
Panaji
17
Gujarat
Vadodara
18
Gujarat
Ahmedabad
19
Gujarat
Surat
20
Gujarat
Rajkot
21
Haryana
Gurugram
22
Haryana
Kurukshetra
23
Himachal Pradesh
Hamirpur
24
Jammu and Kashmir
Jammu
25
Jharkhand
Ranchi
26
Karnataka
Bengaluru
27
Karnataka
Mangaluru(Mangalore)
28
Karnataka
Hubballi(Hubli)
29
Karnataka
Mysuru(Mysore)
30
Karnataka
Udupi
31
Karnataka
Kalaburagi(Gulbarga)
32
Kerala
Kottayam
33
Kerala
Kozhikode
34
Kerala
Thrissur
35
Kerala
Thiruvananthapuram
36
Madhya Pradesh
Indore
37
Madhya Pradesh
Bhopal
38
Madhya Pradesh
Jabalpur
39
Madhya Pradesh
Gwalior
40
Maharashtra
Mumbai
41
Maharashtra
Pune
42
Maharashtra
Nagpur
43
Maharashtra
Aurangabad
44
Maharashtra
Nashik
45
Meghalaya
Shillong
46
Mizoram
Aizawl
47
Odisha
Bhubaneswar
48
Punjab
Ludhiana
49
Punjab
Patiala
50
Punjab
Bhatinda
51
Punjab
Jalandhar
52
Punjab
Amritsar
53
Punjab
Mohali
54
Rajasthan
Kota
55
Rajasthan
Jaipur
56
Rajasthan
Udaipur
57
Rajasthan
Bikaner
58
Rajasthan
Ajmer
59
Rajasthan
Jodhpur
60
Tamil Nadu
Chennai
61
Tamil Nadu
Coimbatore
62
Tamil Nadu
Madurai
63
Tamil Nadu
Tirunelveli
64
Telangana
Hyderabad
65
Telangana
Warangal
66
Telangana
Karimnagar
67
Uttar Pradesh
Lucknow
68
Uttar Pradesh
Kanpur
69
Uttar Pradesh
Noida
70
Uttar Pradesh
Varanasi
71
Uttar Pradesh
Agra
72
Uttar Pradesh
Allahabad
73
Uttar Pradesh
Jhansi
74
Uttar Pradesh
Moradabad
75
Uttar Pradesh
Aligarh
76
Uttarakhand
Dehradun
77
Uttarakhand
Roorkee
78
West Bengal
Kolkata
UGEE Admission Procedure
Applicants who applied for admission via the UGEE mode appear for an exam and are shortlisted for interviews based on the exam performance. The qualified applicants (found suitable in the interview) are ranked based on their interview performance, as judged by the interview panel.
Seats are allocated to applicants, as per rank, in multiple rounds. In each round, an applicant is allocated a seat in a programme, as per rank and preference.
Rounds of seat-allotment:
The seat-allotment process has multiple rounds.
Only qualified applicants are eligible for seat allotment.
In each round, an applicant has a deadline to accept by paying the requisite fees or decline the allotted seat; an applicant can lock the seat, if satisfied with the allotted programme.
If an applicant did not accept and pay for an allotted seat by the deadline, the seat will be treated as declined by the candidate.
If no seat is allotted to an applicant in a Round, the applicant can continue to the next round. However, an applicant has to give consent to participate in the next round. A one-time payment (Rs 10,000 for seat allocation and Rs 10,000 as advance towards tuition fee) is required for continuation to the second and further rounds.
The flowchart below explains the process that an applicant is to follow in every round.
Important dates for the different rounds of admission in UGEE mode and the deadlines for seat acceptance and cancellation will be announced soon on this page.
Written by Ranker Admin, February 27th, 2020 | No Comments »